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MANEVRA NAVEI,CAUTARE SI SALVARE ~ MANAGERIAL: COMANDANTI SI OFITERI I PUNTE - TESTE REZOLVATE


MANEVRA NAVEI,CAUTARE SI SALVARE ~ MANAGERIAL: COMANDANTI SI OFITERI I PUNTE - TESTE REZOLVATE




MANEVRA NAVEI,CAUTARE SI SALVARE MANAGERIAL: COMANDANTI SI OFITERI I PUNTE - TESTE REZOLVATE

1. Ce se intelege prin reperare?

a).Observarea supravietuitorilor sau a ambarcatiunilor de salvare




b).Determinarea pozitiei supravietuitorilor sau a ambarcatiunilor de salvare

c).Determinarea teoretica a pozitiei supravietuitorilor sau ambarcatiunilor de salvare

2. Scara de imbarcare este

a).Scara de acces la bordm

b).Orice scara pe care se poate cobori in mijloacele de salvarenm

c).O scara de pilot amplasata la pupa navei

d).Scara prevazuta la posturile de imbarcare ale navei ce permite accesul sigur la ambarcatiunile de salvare dupa lansare

3. Lansarea plutelor de salvare se face prin:

a).Degajare libera

b).lansare automata

c).inlaturarea dispozitivului de siguranta si aruncarea plutei la apa

d).inlaturarea dispozitivului de sigurantanm

4. Costumul hidrotermic este:

a).Un costum ce nu permite intrarea apei

b).Un costum de protectie ce reduce pierderile de caldura ale corpului unei persoane afundata in apa rece nmlkj

c).Un costum imblanit

d).Un costum de scafandrunmlkj

5. Mijloc gonflabil este:

a).Un mijloc de salvare cu flotabilitatea asigurata de camere nerigide umplute cu gaz ce se pastreaza neumflat pana la momentul folosirii

b).Un mijloc de salvare cu flotabilitate asigurata de camere nerigide umplute cu gaz ce se pastreaza tot timpul umflat

c).Un mijloc de salvare de rezerva

d).Un mijloc de salvare folosit de catre pasageri

6. Barca de urgenta este:

a).Barca destinata pentru a salva persoanele aflate in pericol si a grupa ambarcatiunile de salvarem

b).Barca de salvare cu motor

c) Salupa de croaziera a navei

d).O ambarcatiune speciala destinata pescuirii persoanelor cazute in    maremlk

7. Recuperarea este:

a).Adunarea tuturor membrilor de echipaj

b) Adunarea in siguranta a supravietuitorilor

c).Colectarea tuturor pasagerilor aflati in apa

d) Preluarea echipelor de cart, punte si masina

8. Material reflectorizant este considerat:

a).Orice material ce reflecta lumina

b).O banda vopsita in argintiu ce se vede de la distanta pe timp de noapte

c).O vopsea luminiscenta

d).Un material ce reflecta in directia opusa un fascicol luminos dirijat asupra sa

9. Ambarcatiunea de supravietuire este:

a).O barca de salvare cu motor

b).O pluta de salvare de mare capacitate

c).O barca de urgenta

d).O ambarcatiune ce poate sa mentina in viata persoane aflate in pericol din momentul abandonarii navei

10. Un mijloc de protectie termica este:

a).Un costum etans ce protejeaza corpul contra temperaturilor scazute

b).Un costum confectionat dintr un material ce nu permite schimbul de caldura

c).Orice mijloc de protectie contra frigului

d).Un sac sau costum din material impermeabil cu conductibilitate termica redusa

11. Numarul de aparate de emisie-receptie VHF bicanal pentru o nava de marfuri de 300 TB nu mai mare de TB este:

a).Trei

b) doua

c).Unu

c).Nu sunt necesare

12. Numarul de aparate de emisie receptie VHF bicanal pentru o nava de pasageri sau nava de transport marfuri mai mare sau egal de 500 TR este de:

a).Trei

b).Doua

c).Unul fix si doua mobile

d).SOLAS nu prevede expres

13 .Numarul transponderelor radar ce sunt prevazute pentru o nava de pasageri sau nava de transport marfuri mai mare de 500 TR este:

a).Unu

b).Doua

c).Trei

d).SOLAS nu prevede expres

14. Numarul de transpondere radar ce sunt necesare pe navele de transport mai mare sau egal cu 300 TR dar nu mai mare de 500 TR este:

a).Doua

b).Nici unul

c).Unu

d).SOLAS nu prevede expres

15. Transponderele radar se depoziteaza:

a).In barcile de salvare

b).Pe puntea mijloacelor de salvare langa instructiunile de lansare a acestora

c).In comanda de navigatie

d).In asa fel incat sa poata fi rapid plasate pe orice ambarcatiune de salvare

16. Radiobalizele EPIRB COSPAS/SARSAT emit pe frecventa de:

a).21,5 MHz

b).243 MHz

c).406 MHz sau 406/121,5 MHz

d).121,5 si 406 MHz

17. Radiobalizele EPIRB se plaseaza la bord:

a).In barca de salvare cu motor

b).La puntea mijloacelor de salvare

c).Pe puntea de comanda afara in bordul Bd

d).Intr-un loc astfel incat sa poata fi rapid amplasate in orice ambarcatiune de salvare

18. Dotarea navelor cu echipament GMDSS a devenit obligatorie din:

a).1990 ian

b).1996 iunie

c).1999 / 1 februarie

d).1999 iulie

19. Instalatia de alarmare generala se foloseste pentru:

a).Anunturi la bord

b).Adunarea pasagerilor si echipajului la locurile de adunare pentru declansarea operatiunilor indicate de rolul de apelnmlkj

c).Comunicatii intre compartimentele navei

d).Transmiterea informatiilor utile catre autoritati

20. Numarul minim al rachetelor de semnalizare depozitate pa sau langa puntea de navigatie este:

a).6 rachete parasuta albe si 6 rachete parasuta verzi

b).12 rachete parasuta rosii

c).6 rachete parasuta albe si 6 rachete parasuta rosii

d).8 rachete parasuta de culori diferite

21. Colacii de salvare trebuie sa fie fixati:

a).Pe suporturi fixe, pe toate puntile navei

b).Pe suporturi fixe asigurati cu saule, pe puntile ce se extind pana la bordajul navei

c).In locuri adapostite de valuri

d).Astfel incat sa poata fi imediat accesibili in ambele borduri ale navei si pe cat posibil pe toate puntile deschise ce se extind pana la bordajul navei

22. Care este procentajul minim de colaci prevazuti cu lumini cu autoaprindere?

a).0.25

b).0.5

c).0.75.

d) 1

23. Ce se scrie cu majuscule pe toti colacii de salvare?

a).Numele navei

b).Numele navei si compania armatoare

c).Numele navei si portul de inmatriculare

d).Numele navei si portul de inregistrare cu majuscule si in caractere latine

24. Numarul minim al vestelor de salvare aflate la bordul navelor de transport marfuri va fi:

a).Egal cu numarul de posturi din barca de salvare

b).Egal cu numarul membrilor de echipaj +25%

c).Egal cu numarul de persoane plus un numar suficient pentru personalul de cart si pentru folosirea la posturile indepartate ale ambarcatiunilor de salvare

d) SOLAS nu precizeaza exact

25. Vestele de salvare gonflabile trebuie sa sustina persoana ce o foloseste daca:

a).Se umfla partial

b).Se umfla total

c).Se umfla 50% din compartimente

d).Se umfla numai partea din spate si gulerul

26. Unde se afiseaza rolul de apel si instructiunile in caz de urgenta:

a).In comanda, careuri, puntea mijloacelor de salvare la locuri vizibile

b).In comanda, careuri si pe holuri la locuri vizibile

c).In locuri vizibile pretutindeni pe nava inclusiv puntea de comanda, incaperile de masini si de locuit pentru echipaj

d) oriunde exista locuri propice afisajului

27. Instructiunile de exploatare pentru mijloacele de salvare se afiseaza:

a).In conditii de vizibilitate ale iluminatului de avarie

b).La puntea barcilor

c).Pe comanda de navigatie

d).In careurile echipajului, pe comanda si in sala masini

28. Simbolurile folosite in afisajele de 'Safety' vor fi:

a).Simboluri standard conforme cu administratia de pavilion

b).Simboluri standard ale nationalitatii majoritare a echipajului

c).Simboluri standard engleze

d).Simboluri conforme cu recomandarile Organizatiei

29. Persoanele desemnate pentru conducerea ambarcatiunilor de salvare vor fi:

a).Ofiteri de punte

b).Ofiteri de punte sau o persoana brevetata

c).Orice ofiter sau persoana brevetata sau certificata

d).Orice persoana cu abilitati / cunostinte in manevrarea si conducerea ambarcatiunilor de salvare

30. Ce trebuie sa aiba stabilit in plus o ambarcatiune motor:

a).O persoana care va supraveghea functionarea motorului si va executa reglaje minore!

b).Un ofiter mecanic

c).Un motorist cel putin

d).Orice persoana apta de a opera motorul barcii si agregatele anexa

31. Persoanele desemnate pentru conducerea mijloacelor de salvare trebuie sa fie repartizate:

a).Echitabil pentru toate ambarcatiunile de salvare

b).Cu precadere pentru mijloacele cu motor

c).Numai pentru barcile de salvare

d).Numai pentru barcile de salvare si barca de urgenta

32. Unde se plaseaza barcile si plutele de salvare pentru care se cer instalatii de salvare?

a).La puntea barcilor

b).La extremitatile navei

c).Cat mai aproape posibil de incaperile de locuit si serviciu

d).In locuri special amenajate si usor accesibile personalului de la bord

33. Unde se prevad a se stabili posturile de adunare?

a).Cat mai aproape de posturile de imbarcare

b).In incaperile de folosinta comuna ale navei

c).Pe puntea barcilor

d).Pe puntea de comanda pentru a fi usor de supravegheat de comandant

34. Posturile de adunare si imbarcare vor fi iluminate:

a).De reteaua curenta a navei

b).De o sursa independenta de curent cu tensiune normala

c)De un generator amplasat in apropiere

d).De o instalatie de iluminat alimentata de la sursa electrica de avarie

35. Coridoarele, scarile si iesirile ce conduc la posturile de adunare si de imbarcare vor fi marcate cu:

a).Linii rosii continui

b).Linii rosii continui trasate cu vopsea fosforescente

c) Sageti din materiale reflectorizante

d).Postere si indicatii de acces

36. Ambarcatiunile de salvare se amplaseaza astfel incat:

a). Sa nu stanjeneasca manevra nici unei alte ambarcatiuni de salvare sau a barcii de urgenta de la orice alt post de lansare la apa

b).Sa fie la distanta minima de 3 m de orice alta ambarcatiune de salvare

c).Sa fie egal distribuite pe ambele borduri

d).Sa fie la punti diferite si sa nu fie stanjenite de elicea navei

37. Echipamentul mijloacelor de salvare colective trebuie sa fie depozitat:

a).In fiecare mijloc de salvare echipamentul complet alocat

b).In magazii apropiate gata oricand de ambarcare in mijloacele de salvare

c).Pe puntea de comanda in lazi etanse pentru a putea fi usor verificat si ambarcat in caz de urgenta

d).SOLAS nu prevede expres

38. Eliberarea barcilor de salvare din dispozitivele de fixare trebuie sa se poata face:

a).Manual

b).Usor, rapid, automat

c).Manual si automat

d) Automat la atingerea suprafetei marii

39. La ce adancime se declanseaza automat plutele de salvare ce au ramas pe nava la scufundare?

a).10 metri

b).6 metri

c).4 metri

d).12 picioare

40. Care este baremul de timp pentru lansarea barcii de urgenta?

a).3 min

b).5 min

c).1 min

d).Cat mai repede posibil pentru a si dovedi eficienta maxima

41. Care sunt unghiurile de asieta si banda maxime ce permit lansarea ambarcatiunilor de salvare din dispozitive?

a).10 grade asieta si 20 grade banda

b).5 grade asieta si 15 grade banda

c).10 grade asieta si 15 grade banda

d).5 grade asieta si 20 grade banda

42. Cate tipuri de mecanisme de decuplare pentru ambarcatiunile de salvare de acelasi tip aflate la bord se folosesc?

a).Cate un tip pentru fiecare ambarcatiune

b).Un singur tip pentru toate ambarcatiunile de acelasi tip

c).SOLAS nu precizeaza expres

d).la discretia constructorului

43. Care este frecventa exercitiilor de abandon a navei pentru echipaj?

a).Saptamanal

b).De 2 ori pe luna

c).Lunar

d) Saptamanal cu lansarea a minim o barca pe luna si cu manevrarea prin apa la cel putin 3 luni care barca

nmlkj

44. Exercitiile de abandon se noteaza in:

a).Jurnalul de bord

b).Jurnalul de bord, dosarul de siguranta si caietul de cart

c).Jurnalul de bord, Jurnalul de roluri si antrenamente echipaj

d).Nu este obligatorie inregistrarea acestora

45. Inainte de parasirea postului si pe timpul voiajului, mijloacele de salvare trebuie sa functioneze:

a).In totalitate si pe toata durata

b).Numai la plecarea in voiaj

c).In proportie de 75%

d).Numai pe timpul controalelor de clasa si autoritatilor

46. Plutele de salvare suplimentare se amplaseaza pentru:

a).Navele a caror distanta de la locul amplasarii mijloacelor de salvare pana la o extremitate este de 50 m

b).Navele a caror distanta de la locul amplasarii mijloacelor de salvare pana la o extremitate este de 100 m

c).Navele a caror distanta de la locul amplasarii mijloacelor de salvare pana la o extremitate este de 75 m

d) Pe orice tip de nava indiferent de lungime

47. Luminile vestelor de salvare trebuie sa indeplineasca urmatoarele conditii:

a).Sa aiba o intensitate luminoasa de minim 0,75 candeli

b).Sa lumineze minim 8 ore

c).Sa fie vizibila pe un sector circular

d).Sa aiba o intensitate luminoasa de minim 0,75 candeli, sa lumineze minim 8 ore pe un sector cat mai larg din emisfera superioara

48 .Luminile cu sclipiri din dotarea vestelor de salvare trebuie sa aiba o frecventa de:

a).Minim 100 sclipiri pe minut

b).Minim 50 sclipiri pe minut

c).Minim 25 sclipiri pe minut

d).12 sclipiri pe minut

49. Un costum hidrotermic trebuie sa permita celui ce l poarta:

a).Urcarea si coborarea scarilor de cel putin 5 m

b).Sa execute sarcinile de abandon

c).Sa sara de la 4,5 m si sa inoate pe distanta scurta

d).Toate

50. Mijloacele de protectie termica trebuie sa functioneze satisfacator pentru temperaturi ale aerului intre:

a).Minus 30 grade C la plus 20 grade C

b).Minus 30 grade C la plus 30 grade C

c).Minus 25 grade C la plus 25 grade C

d).Minus 20 grade C la plus 20 grade Cj

51. Un mijloc de protectie termica reduce pierderea de caldura prin:

a).Convectie

b).Evaporare

c).Stocare

d).Convectie si evaporarel

52. Care este durata minima de ardere a unei facle de mana?

a).6 min

b).5 min

c).3 min

d)1 min

53. Care este durata minima de ardere sub apa la 100 mm adancime pentru o facla de mana?

a).20 sec

b) 15 sec

c).10 sec

d).5 sec

54. Care este durata minima de emitere de fum cu debit uniform la plutirea in apa linistita pentru un semnal combinat?

a).1 min

b).3 min

c).5 min

d) Cat mai mult posibil

55. Care este durata minima de emitere de fum pentru un semnal fumigen scufundat in apa la 100 mm adancime?

a).3 min

b).5 min

c).7 min

d).10 min

56. Care este durata de rezistenta la intemperii in stare de plutire in orice conditie de stare a marii pentru o pluta de salvare?

a).10 zile

b).15 zile

c).20 zile

d).30 zile

57. Care este inaltimea maxima de lansare la apa a unei plute normale incat atat pluta cat si echipamentul ei sa poata fi folosite in conditii normale?

a).18 m

b).15 m

c).20 m

d).12 m

58. Care este inaltimea de la care se poate sari repetat in pluta de salvare de catre persoanele ce se ambarca atat cu / cat si fara cort ridicat?

a).3 m

b).2,5 m

c).6 m

d).4,5 m

59. Care este viteza de remorcare in apa calma, pentru o pluta de salvare complet incarcata si echipata?

a).2,5 Nd

b).3 Nd

c).3,5 Nd

d).4 Nd

60. Cate intrari trebuie sa aiba plutele de salvare autorizate sa preia mai mult de 8 persoane?

a).Cel putin 3 dispuse la 120 grade

b).Cel putin 2 dispuse diametral

c).Cel putin 4 dispuse la 90 grade

d).Una singura

61. Care este numarul minim de hublouri de observare cu care trebuie sa fie prevazuta o pluta de salvare?

a).Minim unu

b).Minim 2 dispuse diametral

c).Minim 3 dispuse la 120 grade

d).SOLAS nu prevede expres

62. Care este greutatea maxima totala a unei plute de salvare a containerului si echipamentului, care nu se lanseaza cu un dispozitiv de lansare aprobat?

a).90 Kg

b).120 Kg

c).165 Kg

d).185 Kg

63. In cat timp trebuie sa primeasca o pluta de salvare lansata din grui de pe navele de marfa intreaga incarcatura de persoane de la lansarea semnalului de ambarcare?

a).2 min

b).3 min

c).4 min

d).5 min

64. La ce interval de timp se face verificarea plutelor de salvare si echipamentului acestora in instalatiile specializate autorizate de fabricant?

a).La 6 luni

b).Anual

c).La 18 luni

d) La intrarea navei in santier

65. Care este materialul pirotehnic minim necesar pentru o pluta de salvare?

a).4 rachete parasuta, 6 facle de mana, 2 semnale fumigene plutitoare

b).4 rachete parasuta, 6 facle de mana, un semnal fumigen plutitor

c) 2 rachete parasuta, 4 facle de mana, un semnal fumigen plutitor

d).4 rachete parasuta si 6 facle de mana

66. Cate kilocalorii trebuie sa asigure ratiile de hrana pentru fiecare persoana din pluta de salvare?

a).5000 Kcal

b).4000 Kcal

c).2800 Kcal

d).6000 Kcal

67. Care este cantitatea minima de apa pentru fiecare persoana din pluta de salvare?

a) 1 litru

b) 2 litri

c) 2,5 litri

d) 1,5 litri din care 0,5 litri poate fi inlocuit de un aparat de desalinizare

68. Care este numarul minim de mijloace de protectie termica ce trebuie sa se gaseasca in fiecare pluta de salvare?

a).Pentru 20% din numarul de persoane pe care pluta este autorizata a le prelua

b).Pentru 15% din numarul de persoane pe care pluta este autorizata a le prelua

c).Pentru 10% din numarul de persoane pe care pluta este autorizata a le prelua

d) Nu sunt necesare

69. La ce adancime dispozitivul de eliberare automat trebuie sa elibereze pluta de salvare?

a).2 m

b).3 m

c).3,5 m

d).4 m

70. Cate din compartimentele plutelor gonflabile pot fi avariate fara a diminua capacitatea plutei?

a).Un compartiment

b).50% din compartimente

c).25% din compartimente

d).2 compartimente diametral opuse

71. Care este presiunea la care trebuie sa reziste un compartiment gonflat al unei plute de salvare?

a).Presiunea normala a plutei

b).Presiunea dubla normala de lucru

c).Presiunea tripla normala de lucru

d).Presiunea de 1,5 Bari

72. Capacitatea plutei gonflabile se determina ca fiind:

a).Cel mai mare numar intreg obtinut prin impartirea volumului total al camerelor de aer in m cubi la 0,096

b) O persoana pentru fiecare metru din circumferinta exterioara a plutei

c).O persoana pentru fiecare 18 Kg din greutatea plutei

d).Cel mai mare numar intreg obtinut prin impartirea volumului total al camerelor de aer in metri cubi la0,082k

73 .O barca de salvare trebuie sa poata fi lansata la apa cand nava este in mars cu o viteza maxima de

a).3 Nd

b).4 Nd

c).4,5 Nd

d). Nd

74. Corpurile si acoperisurile rigide ale barcilor trebuie sa fie fabricate din materiale:

a).Cu intarziere la foc sau necombustibile

b).Din orice fel de material

c).Din materiale combustibile

d).Din acelasi material cu corpul barcii de salvare

75. Greutatea totala teoretica pentru o persoana ambarcata in barca de salvare fata de care se determina capacitatea barcii este:

a).75 Kg

b).90 Kg

c).100 Kg

d).110 Kg

76. Robustetea barcilor cu corp metalic este suficienta daca suporta fara deformari reziduale:

a).De 1,1 ori greutatea totala a barcii incarcata complet cu persoane si echipament

b).de 1,25 ori greutatea totala a barcii incarcata complet cu persoane si echipament

c).De 1,5 ori greutatea totala a barcii incarcata complet cu persoane si echipament

d).De 1,75 ori greutatea totala a barcii incarcata complet cu persoane si echipament

77 .Inaltimea maxima de cadere libera in apa ce poate fi suportata de o barca de salvare complet echipata si cu persoane la bord este de:

a).2,5 m

b).3,5 m

c).3 m

d).4,5 m

78. Capacitatea maxima a barcilor de salvare este limitata la:

a).100 persoane

b).125 persoane

c).150 persoane

d).175 persoane

79. Suprafetele pe care merg persoanele in barcile de salvare trebuiesc acoperite cu:

a).Vopsea

b).Podele de lemn

c).Gratare de lemn

d).Material antiderapant

80. Bordul liber minim al barcilor de salvare determinat cu 50% din numarul de persoane pe care- l pot prelua stand intr-un singur bord trebuie sa fie:

a).1,5% din lungimea barcii sau 100 mm oricare este mai mare

b).2,5% din lungimea barcii sau 200 mm oricare este mai mare

c).225 mm

d).150 mm

81. Ce tip de motoare sunt aprobate pentru propulsia barcii de salvare

a).Cu aprindere prin scanteie

b).Cu aprindere prin compresie

c).Cu aburi

d) Electric

82. Care este temperatura minima si timpul necesar de start al motorului barcii de salvare?

a).minus 18 grade si 3 min

b).minus 15 grade si 3 min

c).minus 15 grade si 2 min

d).minus 12 grade si 2 min

83. Care este timpul minim de functionare a motorului cand barca de salvare nu se gaseste in apa?

a) 2 min

b) 3 min

c) 5 min

d) 10 min

84. Viteza minima de mars inainte pentru o barca de salvare cu motor complet incarcata cu numarul de persoane prevazut si echipament complet si cu tot echipamentul auxiliar in functiune este de:

a) 4 Nd

b) 5 Nd

c) 5,5 Nd

d) 6 Nd

85. Viteza minima de mars inainte pentru o barca de salvare cu motor complet incarcata ce remorcheaza o pluta de salvare de 25 persoane complet incarcata trebuie sa fie:

a).1,5 Nd

b).2 Nd

c).2,5 Nd

d).3 Nd

86. Cand sunt obligatorii patinele si amortizoarele pentru prevenirea avarierii barcii?

a).Pentru barcile ce se lanseaza de-a lungul bordajului

b).Pentru barcile ce se lanseaza prin pupa

c).Pentru barcile cu lansare prin cadere libera

d).Pentru barcile de urgenta

87. Sursa de lumina din interiorul barcii de salvare trebuie sa asigure iluminatul timp de:

a).6 ore

b).12 ore

c).18 ore

d).24 ore

88. Care este numarul minim de cangi ce trebuie sa existe intr-o barca de salvare?

a) Una

b) Doua

c) Depinde de capacitate

d) Nici una

89. Care este numarul de topoare cu saula ce trebuie sa existe intr-o barca de salvare?

a) Doua, cate unul la fiecare extremitate

b) Un topor la prova

c) Un topor la seful de barca

d) Depinde de capacitatea barcii

90. Care este cantitatea minima de apa ce trebuie sa existe pentru fiecare membru al barcii de salvare?

a).3 litri de fiecare persoana autorizata sa transporte

b).3 litri de fiecare persoana autorizata sa transporte din care 1 litru poate fi inlocuit de un aparat de desalinizare

c).3,5 litri de persoana

d).Oricat este posibil dar nu mai putin de 3 litri

91. Cate calorii trebuie sa contina ratiile de hrana pentru fiecare persoana autorizata sa transporte barca de salvare?

a) 3500 cal

b) 4500 cal

c) 5000 cal

d) 6000 cal

92. Materialele pirotehnice necesare barcii de salvare sunt:

a).4 rachete parasuta, 6 facle de mana si un semnal fumigen

b).4 rachete parasuta, 8 facle de mana si 2 semnale fumigene

c).4 rachete parasuta, 6 facle de mana si 2 semnale fumigene portocalii

d).In functie de capacitatea barcii de salvare

93. Numarul colacilor de salvare cu saula de 30 metrii pentru fiecare barca de salvare trebuie sa fie:

a) Unu

b) Doi

c) In functie de capacitatea barcii

d) SOLAS nu prevede expres

94. Mijloacele de protectie termica necesare in barca de salvare trebuie sa asigure:

a) Minim 10% din numarul autorizat de persoane

b) Minim 15% din numarul autorizat de persoane

c) Minim 20% din numarul autorizat de persoane

d) In functie de capacitatea barcii si la discretia Administratiei

95. Numele navei si portul de inregistrare se inscriu pe barca de salvare:

a).La prova, vizibil de sus

b).La prova in fiecare bord cu litere latine, vizibil de sus

c).La pupa navei, pe fiecare bord

d).Pe tenda de acoperire a barcii vizibil de sus

96. Numarul de aparate de lansare a bandulei la bordul unei nave trebuie sa fie de:

a) Doua

b) Trei

c) Patru

d) In functie de tonajul brut al navei

97. Manualul de instruire trebuie sa contina:

a).Instructiuni si informatii asupra mijloacelor de salvare din dotare

navei si cele mai bune metode de supravietuire

b).Explicatii privind intretinerea si operarea mijloacelor de salvare

c).Notiuni de stabilitate si asieta pentru nava avariata

d).Notiuni de marinarie generala

98. O lista de control 'Cheklist' va cuprinde:

a).Obiectivele de verificat pentru o anumita activitate, la un moment dat

b).Echipamentul de salvare si supravietuire

c).Etape in intretinerea echipamentelor de salvare

d).Instructiuni de operare pentru echipamentele cu grad de risc ridicat

99. O barca de salvare partial inchisa este o barca:

a). Care are acoperisuri rigide pe cel putin 50% din suprafata

b).Care prezinta acoperisuri permanente pe cel putin 20% din lungime incapand din pupa

c).Care prezinta acoperisuri permanente pe cel putin 20% din lungime incepand din prova

d).Cu acoperis demontabil

100. O barca de salvare partial inchisa cu redresare automata este o barca de salvare partial inchis care:

a) Se redreseaza din orice pozitie

b).Se redreseaza numai cu echipajul la bord care iI fixeaza perfect centrul de greutate

c).Se redreseaza in mod normal sau automat complet sau partial incarcata cu echipajul fixat in centurile de siguranta

d).Se redreseaza mai usor decat o barca de salvare normala

101. O barca de salvare complet inchisa este o barca de salvare care are:

a) Un acoperis semirigid de la prova la pupa

b) Un acoperis care inchide complet barca de salvare

c) Un acoperis combinat rigid si tenda ce poate fi etansat

d) Un acoperis rigid pe toata suprafata

102. Pe partea superioara a barcii de salvare inchise se inscrie:

a).Indicativul de apel al navei

b).Numele navei si indicativul de apel

c).Numele navei si portul de inregistrare

d).Indicativul navei si portul de inregistrare

103. Culoarea folosita pentru mijloacele de salvare este:

a).Rosie

b).Portocalie

c).Portocalie luminiscenta

d).Alba reflectorizanta

104 .Barcile de salvare protejate la foc trebuie sa fie dotate cu:

a).Instalatie cu CO2

b).Instalatie de pulverizare a apei

c).Instalatie de stins incendiu cu Haloni

d).O instalatie de protectie la foc combinata, eficienta pentru a rezista timp indelungat la actiunea focului

105. Barcile de urgenta sunt barcile care:

a).Au o lungime de minim 3,5 m sau maxim 8 m si pot transporta 5 persoane in pozitia sezut si una lungita

b).Orice fel de barca cu viteza mare

c).Orice barca de viteza rigida ce poate transporta de urgenta o persoana ranita

d).Au dimensiuni mici si se folosesc doar in situatii speciale

106 .Echipamentul barcii de urgenta trebuie sa fie asigurat in interiorul barcii:

a).In totalitate

b) In totalitate, mai putin cangile

c).Numai echipamentul de interventie

d) SOLAS nu prevede expres

107. Barcile de urgenta trebuie sa aiba fixat un dispozitiv de remorcat:

a).Cu caracter permanent

b).Cu caracter permanent si rezistent pentru remorcarea si manevrarea plutelor de salvare

c).Cu caracter temporar

d). Detasabil din lipsa de spatiu

108. La ce interval de timp se intorc curentii de la vinciurile de lansare a barcilor de salvare?

a).24 luni

b).36 luni

c).30 luni

d).48 luni

109. Care este viteza minima de ridicare a barcilor de salvare cu o instalatie cu grui si vinci?

a).1m/s

b).0,5m/s

c).0,3m/s

d).0,25m/s

110. Scarile de ambarcare a personalului in barcile de salvare trebuie sa aiba trepte:

a).De L=480mm; l=115m; g=25mm

b).De L=450mm; l=120m; g=30mm

c).De L=480mm; l=115m; g=30mm

d).De L=450mm; l=115m; g=25mm

111. Distanta dintre 2 trepte ale scarii trebuie sa fie de:

a).Minim 300mm sau cel mult 380mm

b).Minim 280mm sau cel mult 350mm

c).Minim 300mm sau cel mult 350mm

d).Minim 310mm sau cel mult 370mm

112. Comunicatii 'bridge to bridge' inseamna:

a).Comunicatii prin VHF

b).Comunicari prin telefonie mobila

c).Comunicatii de siguranta intre doua nave efectuate din locul din care se conduce in mod normal o nava

(puntea de navigatie)

d).Comunicare intre diferite compartimente ale navei

113. Ascultarea continua este:

a).Ascultarea radio neintrerupta

b).Ascultarea permanenta VHF

c).Ascultarea radio neintrerupta decat pentru intervale scurte cand capacitatea de receptie a navei este blocata de propriile comunicari

d).Legatura permanenta cu o alta nava aflata in situatie de pericol

114. Prin localizare se intelege:

a).Reperarea unei nave cu mijloace de goniometrie

b).Reperarea mijloacelor de salvare in deriva

c).Reperarea aeronavelor

d).Reperarea navelor, aeronavelor, unitatilor sau persoanelor aflate in pericol

115. Prin informatii de siguranta a navigatiei se intelege:

a).Avize de navigatie

b).Avize de furtuna

c).Avize de gheata

d).Avize de navigatie si meteo, buletine meteo si alte mesaje urgente privind siguranta, transmise navelor

116. Zona Maritima A4 este:

a).Zona inclusa in aria de acoperire a unei statii VHF

b).Zona inclusa in aria de acoperire a unei statii radiotelefonice de coasta (medie frecventa)

c) Zona acoperita de un satelit geostationar

d).Zona in afara Zonelor Maritime A1; A2 si A3

117. Grupul de litere SOS reprezinta:

a).Un semnal de pericol

b).Un semnal de siguranta

c).Un semnal de urgenta

d).Un semnal de conectare a unei nave cu statia de coasta

118. Serviciul International NAVTEX este serviciul de transmitere coordonata si receptie automata a informatiilor privind siguranta navigatiei maritime in sistemul:

a).Telegrafie cu imprimare directa cu banda ingusta

b).Radiotelefonie in banda intermediara

c).Radiotelefonie de inalta frecventa

d).Radiotelefonie prin satelit

119. Serviciul NAVTEX international foloseste frecventa:

a).2182,5KHz

b).1605KHz

c).518KHz

d).156,7MHz

120. Serviciul NAVTEX international foloseste limba:

a).Franceza

b).Limba zonei de navigatie

c).Engleza

d).Esperando

121. INMARSAT este:

a).Organizatia Internationala pentru Transmisiuni

b).Organizatia Internationala pentru Comunicatii Maritime prin Satelit

c).Organizatia maritima Internationala

d).Organizatia internationala pentru transmisiuni maritime

122. DSC inseamna:

a).Distress Selective Calling

b).Digital Selective Calling

c).Distance Securing Callingm

d) Digital Securing Calling

123. Zona Maritima A1 este zona in care comunicatiile sunt acoperite de:

a).Cel putin o statie radiotelefonica de coasta VHF

b).Cel putin o statie radiotelefonica de coasta VHF care sa asigure continuu alertarea DSC VHF

c).O statie radiotelefonica de coasta si o statie mobila maritima

d).Minim 3 statii radiotelefonice de coasta cu alertare continua DSC

124. Zona Maritima A2 este zona in care comunicatiile sunt acoperite de cel putin:

a).O statie VHF cu alertare continua DSC

b).O statie Radio in Medie frecventa fara alertare DSC

c).O statie radiotelefonica de coasta in medie frecventa cu alertare continua DSC MF

d).O staie radiotelefonica de coasta in unde scurte cu DSC

125. Zona Maritima A3 este zona in care comunicatiile sunt acoperite de cel putin:

a).O statie radiotelefonica de coasta VHF cu alertare DSC si o statie de Medie frecventa

b).O statie radiotelefonica de coasta in Medie frecventa cu alertare DSC si o statie pentru unde scurte cu alertare DSC

c) Un satelit geostationar INMARSAT in care se asigura alertare continua prin satelit

d).Un satelit INMARSAT, o statie de coasta in Medie frecventa si o statie de coasta VHF

126. Cerintele SOLAS pentru nave in ceea ce priveste transmiterea mesajelor de pericol de la nava la coasta sunt:

a) Cel putin 2 mijloace separate independente fiecare folosind un serviciu diferit de radiocomunicatii

b).O radiobaliza EPIRB si o statie radiotelegrafica de medie frecventa

c).O radiobaliza EPIRB si un radiotelefon fix cu DSC

d).O radiobaliza EPIRB, un telex INMARSAT si un radiotelefon cu DSC

127. Iluminarea statiilor radio de la bord se face:

a).De la sursele de energie electrica principale

b).De la sursa de rezerva GMDSS

c).De la sistemul general de avarie al navei

d).De la tabloul principal de distributie

128. Statia radio a navei va fi marcata cu:

a).Indicativul de apel al navei

b).Codul IMMS

c).Indicativul de apel, codul IMMS si numarul de telex / satelit

d).Indicativul de apel, identitatea statiei, si cu alte coduri pentru operarea statiei radio

129. Comanda canalelor VHF trebuie sa fie asigurata din urmatoarele puncte ale puntii de navigatiei

a) In apropierea pozitiei de guvernare

b).In ambele borduri

c) Prin folosirea echipamentului portabil din orice punct

d).In apropierea pozitiei de guvernare si cand este necesar de pe partile laterale ale puntii de navigatie

130. Sistemul GMDSS corespunzator Zonei Maritime A4 trebuie sa asigure:

a).Legatura cu orice punct al globului

b).Comunicatii cu intregul glob mai putin zonele polare

c).Receptia si transmiterea apelurilor de pericol din/spre orice statie terestra si Maritima mobila

d).Comunicatii nava-nava

131. DSC VHF transmite alerte de primejdie pe canalul

a) VHF / CH.16

b).VHF / CH.70

c).VHF CH.6

d).VHF / CH.13

132. Termenul EPIRB semnifica:

a).Emergency Position Indicating Radio Beacon

b).Nava in pericol

c).Apel fals de pericol pe mare

d).Nava in pericol ce-si transmite pozitia

133. Codul International de semnale se utilizeaza pentru:

a).Comunicatii nava-nava

b).Comunicatii nava-autoritati

c).Comunicatii nava-echipe de salvare

d).Legatura intre nave puncte de supraveghere de coasta si ambarcatiunile de salvare in caz de pericol

134. Semnificatia pavilionului 'B' din Codul International este:

a).Am scafandru la apa

b).Pescuiesc cu plase / carlige laterale

c).Am persoane bolnave la bord

d).Ambarc, debarc, transport marfuri periculoase bunkerez sau transfer bunker la/ de la alta nava

135. Semnificatia pavilionului 'A' din Codul International este:

a).Am scafandru la apa, navigati cu precautiune si reduceti viteza in apropiere

b).Adunarea echipajului la bord

c).Nava in carantina sanitara

d).Nava stanjenita de pescaj

136. Semnificatia pavilionului 'G' din Codul International este:

a).Am marfuri periculoase la bord

b).Nava cu capacitate de manevra redusa

c).Nava gata de a parasi portul

d).Am nevoie de pilot

137. Semnificatia pavilionului 'H' din Codul International este:

a).Am nevoie de pilot

b).Astept instructiuni de debarcare

c).Cer libera practica

d).Am pilot la bord

138. Cand o nava nu are pavilionul tarii in care face escala cu ce pavilion de cod il inlocuieste?

a).Litera 'A'

b).O combinatie de pavilioane reprezentand indicativul de apel al navei

c).Pavilioanele 'G' si 'N' ridicate pe aceeasi verticala 'G' sus

d).Litera 'H'

139. Care este locul de pe nava unde se arboreaza pavilionul statului de escala:

a).La catargul prova

b).La bastonul pupa

c).La catargul principal pe prima saula din Td

d).La picul catargului pupa

140. Semnificatia pavilionului 'Q' din Codul International este:

a).Cer libera practica sanitara

b).Cer pilot

c).Prezenta echipajului la bord

d).Cer urgent ajutor medical

141. Semnificatia pavilionului 'P' din Codul International este:

a).Adunarea echipajului la bord, nava gata de plecare

b).Pescuim, nu deranjati

c).Executam lucrari la elice

d) Pituram corpul navei, tineti va la distanta

142. Semnificatia pavilionului 'O' din Codul International este:

a).Ambarc, debarc, transport marfuri periculoase

b).Ocoliti ma sunt esuat pe un banc

c).Suntem pregatiti pentru interventie

d).Om la apa, feriti zona de recuperare

143. Un semnal format din 7 sunete scurte si un semnal lung transmis prin soneriile de alarma ale navei inseamna:

a).Abandonarea navei

b).Incendiu la bord

c).Adunarea echipajului in salon pentru comunicari

d).Pasagerii sa se prezinte la controlul autoritatilor

144. Care sunt mijloacele cu care se pot transmite semnale morse luminoase de la nava?

a).Proiector

b).Lampa ALDIS

c).Lampile fixe de la crucetele catargelor

d).Toate mijloacele de la a,b si c

145. Ce semnificatie are semnalul 'Doua bule negre ridicate pe aceeasi verticala la catargul principal'?

a).Nava stanjenita de pescaj

b).Nava cu capacitate de manevra redusa

c).Nava in deriva

d).Nava nestapana pe manevra

146. Ce semnificatie are semnalul un cilindru negru pe verticala la catargul principal:

a) Nava nestapana pe manevra

b).Nava stanjenita de pescaj

c) Nava in carantina

d). Nava ce pescuieste cu traulul

147. Care este semnificatia semnalului bula bicon bula negre, ridicate pe aceeasi verticala la Catargul Principal

a).Nava cu capacitate de manevra redusa

b).Nava in deriva

c).Nava nestapana pe manevra

d).Nava fara echipaj

148. Cum se semnalizeaza o epava pe timp de zi?

a).Bula de ancora si 2 bule negre la catarg

b).3 bule negre la catarg

c).Bula neagra la prova si bula neagra la pupa

d).Un cilindru si o bula la catarg

149. Cand o nava este scutita de a acorda ajutor unei nave aflate in pericol?

a).Cand marfurile transportate de aceasta sunt incompatibile cu interventia ceruta

b).Cand prin interventia receptiva se pune in pericol ea insasi

c).Cand trebuie sa ajunga la destinatie fara intarziere

d).Cand este o nava de linie

150. The vessel is going through the illustrated turning procedure. What is the name of this turning procedure?

Maximizeaza

a) Scharnow Turn

b) Williamson Turn

c) Direct Turn

d) Evinrude Turn

151. The vessel is going through the illustrated turning procedure. What is the name of this turning procedure?

Maximizeaza

a) Direct Turn

b) Evinrude Turn

c) Williamson Turn

d) Scharnow Turn

152. The vessel is going through the illustrated turning procedure. What is the name of this turning procedure?

a) WilliamsonTurn

b) Evinrude Turn

c) Direct Turn

d) Scharnow Turn

153. Replies from life saving stations or maritime rescue units to distress signals made. What is the meaning of the signal?

a) In general: Negative (Specifically: Slack away-avast hauling)

b) Landing here is highly dangerous

c) In general: Positive (Specifically: Rocket line is held, tail block is made fast, haul away, etc)

d) You are seen assistance will be given as soon as possible

154. Signals used by aircraft engaged in search and rescue operations to direct ships towards an aircraft, ship or person in distress. What is the meaning of the signal?

a) Landing here is highly dangerous

b) Require medical assistance

c) The aircraft is directing a vessel towards an aircraft or vessel in distress

d) The assistance of the vessel is no longer required

155 .Signals used by aircraft engaged in search and rescue operations to direct ships towards an aircraft, ship or person in distress. What is the meaning of the signal?

a) The assistance of the vessel is no longer required

b) The aircraft is directing a vessel towards an aircraft or vessel in distress

c) Landing here is highly dangerous

d) Require medical assistance

156. What is the meaning of this signal performed by an aircraft to survivors on the surface? Procedures performed by an aircraft as illustrated below.

a) The aircraft has to leave the survivors due to fuel shortage

b) The aircraft has to leave, but will return within 5 hours

c) The aircraft wishes to inform or instruct survivors

d) Please try to contact nearest coastal radio station

157. All designated SAR aircraft and civil aircraft carry equipment operating on the international aeronautical distress frequencies (amplitude modulation). The aeronautical distress frequencies are

a) a)23,8MHz and/or 247,6MHz

b) 243,a)MHz and/or 486,2MHz

c) a)2a),5 MHz and/or a)23,a) MHz (civil aviation)

d) a)27,8MHz and/or 349,6MHz

158. What is the search pattern system called where a) ship and a) plane are involved?

a) SOLAS

b) Flight Cross

c) Coordinated Crab

d) Patterton

159. What is the search pattern system called using more than one ship?

a) Parallel System

c) Circle System

d) Triangle System

160. What is the possible position of a ship in distress called?

a) R Point

b) D Point

c) S-Point

d) Zero -Point

161. Every inflatable liferaft, inflatable lifejacket and hydrostatic release units shall be serviced:

a). Every 18 months

b) Every 36 months

c) Every 12 months

d) Every 24 months

162. .It is a sunny day with calm sea. You are standing on the bridge onboard a vessel doing 15kts(465 metres/min). You see a man falling overboard. How long time does it take to loose sight of theman if the vessel continues speed and course?

a) Less than 5 minutes

b) 10 minutes

c) 17 minutes

d) 33 minutes

163. You are duty officer on the bridge. An eye witness is reporting man-overboard. Which of the following actions are to be considered as the correct manoeuvre in this situation?

a) Direct Turn

b) Evinrude Turn

c) Williamson Turn

d) Scharnow Turn

164. You are standing on the bridge and are eye witness to a man falling over board. Which of the following actions are to be considered as the correct manoeuvre in this situation?

a) Direct Turn

b). Williamson Turn

c) Scharnow Turn

d) Evinrude Turn

165. You are duty officer on the bridge. A person is reported missing. Which of the following actions are to be considered as the correct manoeuvre in this situation?

a) Direct Turn

b) Evinrude Turn

c) Scharnow Turn

d) Williamson Turn

166. What is the search system pattern called using a) vessel?

a) Square System

b) Single System

c) Lonely System

d) Sector System

167. A men inflatable liferaft shall be carried as far forward as is reasonable and practicable. Where is the best stowing position?

a) Under the forecastle

b) Aft of the forecastle, secured with wire and turnbuckle

c) All forward on the forecastle and secured with the use of hydrostatic release device

d) Aft of the forecastle secured with the use of hydrostatic release device

168. There exists an unqualified obligation to assist persons in distress, but does the Master have an obligation to assist in towing of a vessel?

a) Yes, but weather permitting

b) Only if the vessel in distress can supply the insurance wire

c) Master has no obligations to assist in towing of a vessel

d) Master has no obligations to assist in towing of a vessel in distress, but may do so when taken necessary precautions in coordination with Chief Engineer and Company Claim Manager

169.The distress message is used when the vessel is threatened by a serious and imminent danger and is in need of immediate assistance. What is the telegraphy and telephony distress message like?

a) SOS 9Telegraphy)/MAYDAY (Telephony)

b) XXX (Telegraphy)/PAN-PAN (Telephony)

c) FFF(Telegraphy)/RESCUE RESCUE (Telephony)

d) TTT (Telegraphy)/SECURITE (Telephony)

170.What is the Morse Code Signal Letter used by a vessel in response to an aircraft is request for assistance in a rescue operation?

a) Y

b) S

c) A

d)T

171. Which letter from the Morse code is used to signal a safe landing place (sound or light)?

a) B

b) F

c) K

d) S

172 .What colour flare is used to signal a highly dangerous landing place?

a) Red

b) Blue

c) Orange

d) Yellow

173. Which letter from the Morse code is used to signal a highly dangerous landing place?

a) S

b) D

c) F

d) H

174 .What is the colour of the smoke signal used by life-saving station or rescue units indicating that d istress signals are observed in daylight?

a) Yellow

b) Blue

c) Green

d) Orange

175. Who should be informed first when receiving a distress signal from an other ship/vessel?

a) AMVER

b) Associated Press

c) Coast Earth Station or RCC

d) Your own company

176. What sound signal shall be used on ship`s whistle when man over board?

a) 3 long blasts repeatedly

b) 6 short blasts repeatedly

c) 5 short blasts repeatedly

d) 4 long blasts repeatedly

177 .What is a 'Search and Rescue Region' (SRR)?

a) An area where a search and rescue operation is under way

b) An area of limited dimension in which rescue vessels are permanently stationed

c) An area of defined dimensions within which search and rescue services are provided

d) An area of defined dimension where an international organization is responsible for search and rescue operations

178 You wish to carry out a test transmission on your radio equipment. What precautions should be taken if any?

a) All of the items in the other alternatives should be done

b) Listen out to ensure that no safety/distress traffic is in progress

c) Test transmission should be carried out on artificial aerals and/or reduced power

d) Test transmission should be kept to a minimum

179. On which frequencies do most satellite EPIRB's COSPAS/SARSAT operate ?

a) 1.21.5/406MHz

b) 2182 kHz

c) 121.5Khz

d) 500Khz

180 .Comunications in radio telephony what is the 'URGENCY CALL' which should be used to indicate that you have a very urgent message to transmit concerning the safety of another vessel or person?

a) Pan Pan (3 times)

b) Mayday (3 times)

c) Securite (3 times)

d). Victor (3 times)

181. You have an important navigational or meteorological message to transmit. What call should proceed this message when made on the radio telephone?

a) Securite (3 times)

b) Mayday (3 times)

c) Pan Pan (3 times)

d) Victor (3 times)

182. What is the meaning of the flag U in the International code of signals?

a) You should stop your engines and watch for my signals

b) You are running into danger

c) I am in distress and need immediate assistance

d) Keep clear of me, I am manoeuvring with difficulty

183. You are approaching a port when you see three flashing red lights in a vertical line at the entrance.What does this indicate?

a) Vessels may proceed in with caution

b) Use main channel only as secondary channel closed

c) Serious emergency all vessels to stop or divert according to instructions

d) Port closed

184. In the international code of signals what does the flag D mean?

a) You should stop your vessel and watch for my signals

b) You are running into danger

c) I am in distress and need immediate assistance

d) I am manoeuvring with difficulty. Keep clear of me

185. What does the V signal indicate?

a) A fishing vessel whose nets have come fast on an obstruction

b) A vessel requiring medical assistance

c) I require assistance

d) A fishing vessel engaged in trawling

186. Under GMDSS which VHF channel is used for Digital Selective Calling (DSC)?

a) Ch.06

b)Ch.13

c) Ch.70

d) Ch.16

187. Non distress calls on 2182 KHz and VHF channel a)6 should not exceed:

a) One minute

b) Two minutes

c) Three minutes

d) Five minutes

188. What do these two flags CB signal indicate?

a) I am in distress and require assistance

b) Keep clear I have divers down

c) I require medical assistance

d) I require a tow

189. You receive a distress alert on HF Radio. What should you do?

a) Acknowledge receipt

b) Relay the message immediately on 2182KHz

c)     Wait three minutes and if no acknowledgement is heard from a coast station you should relay the alert

d) No response is necessary providing the vessel is more than 24 hours away

190. What is the meaning of the single letter signal Y ?

a) I am dragging my anchor

b) I require medical assistance

c) I require a tug

d) You are running into danger

191. Code signals concerning requests and general information on medical matters normally consist of:

a) Letter M plus two other letters

b) Letter H plus two other letters

c) Letter D plus two other letters

d) Letter P plus two other letters

192. Which signal should you send to show that you have completed your morse code transmission?

a) Morse signal END

b) Morse signal ED

c) Morse signal AR

d) Morse signal EE

193. When reasonable and practicable, how ofter shall rescue boats be launched with their assigned crew aboard and manouvered in the water?

a) Every month

b) Every week

c) Every two weeks

d) Every three months

194. At least how ofter shall rescue boats (MOB) be launched with their assigned crew and manouvered in the water?

a) Every three months

b) Every week

c) Every two weeks

d) Every month

195. Which of the following requirements regarding life buoys do not correspond to present regulations? (SOLAS III/7.1)

a) All life-buoys shall be placed in holders with quick-release arrangement

b) At least one life buoy on each side of the ship shall be fitted with a buoyant lifeline

c) Not less than half the total number of lifebuoys shall be provided with self iginting lights

d) At least one lifebouy shall be placed within the vicinity of the stern

196. Which of the following requirements regarding the number of lifejackets provided do not correspond to present regulations? (SOLAS III/7.2)

a) A number of lifejackets suitable for children equal to at least 10% of the number of passengers onboard or a greater number as may be required to provide a lifejacket for each child

b) A sufficient number of lifejackets for use at remotely located survival craft station

c) A number of lifejackets equal to at least 10% of the total number of passengers and crew to be placed in the vicinity of the muster stations

d) A sufficient number of lifejackets shall be carried for persons on watch

197. Which one of the listed requirements regarding lifebuoys do not correspond to present regulations? (SOLAS III/31)

a) Every lifebuoy shall be constructed of inherently buoyant material or have sifficient air compartment for buoyancy

b) Every lifebuoy shall have a mass of less than b)5 kilos

c) Every lifebuoy shall, if being fitted with light or smoke signal, have a weight of not less than 4 kilos

d) Every lifebuoy shall be fitted with a grab line

198. How often shall each member of the crew participate in an 'abandon ship' drill?

a) Once every month

b) Once every week

c) Once every 6 months

d) Once a year

199. Which of the following items shall be included in an 'abandon ship'-drill?

a) Checking the distress signal rockets and other distress signals

b) Checking the lifeboat provisions and supplies

c) Checking the EPIRB and transponder

d) Checking that passengers and crew are suitably dressed and lifejackets correctly donned

200. An alarm signal consisting of seven short blast followd by one prolonged blast is sounded by the ship`s whistle and alarm bells. What are you to do?

a) Go to your lifeboat station

b) Go to your fire station

c) Report on the bridge (deck crew) or engine room (engine crew) for further orders

d) Go to (or remain in) your cabin and await further orders

201. Posters or signs shall be provided on or in the vicinity of survival craft and their launching controls. Which of the following requirements do not have to be included according to present regulations? (SOLAS III/9)

a) Give information on survival craft capacity

b) Illustrate the purpose of controls and the procedures of operating the appliance

c) Give relevant instructions and warnings

d) Use recommended symbols

202. Which one of the given requirements regarding manning and supervision of survival craft do not carrespond to the present regulations? (SOLAS III/10)

a) Every motorized survival craft shall have a certificated engineer assigned

b) A deck officer or certificated person shall be placed in change of each survival craft to be used

c) There shall be a sufficient number of trained persons on board mustering and assisting untrained persons

d) Every lifeboat required to carry radio telegraph installation shall have a person capable of operating the equipment assigned

203. Which one of the given requirements regarding survival craft muster and embarcation arrangements do not correspond with present regulations? (SOLAS III/10)

a) Searchlight to be provided at the launching station

b) Davit launched surviuvalcraft muster and embarcation stations shall be arranged to enable stretchers to be placed in survival craft

c) Muster and embarcation stations shall be readily accesible from accomodation and work areas

d) Where necessary, men shall be provided for holding the davit launched craft against the shipside for embarcation

204. Which one of the listed requirements regarding the stowage of a survival craft do not correspond with present regulations? (SOLAS III/13.1) Each survival craft shall be stowed:

a) So that neither craft nor stowage arrangement interfere with the general operation of the ship

b) As near the water surface as is safe and practicable

c) In a state of continous readiness so that two crewmembers can prepare for embarcation and launching in less than 5 minutes

d) In a secure and sheltered position and protected from damage by fire or explosion

205. Which one of the listed requirements regarding the stowage of lifeboats and liferafts do not correspond to present regulations? (SOLAS III/13.3

a) Liferafts intended for throw -overboard launching shall be stowed midships secured to means for transfer to either side

b) Lifeboats shall be stowed attached to launching appliances

c) Liferafts shall be so stowed as to permit manual release from their securing arrangements

d) Davit launched liferafts shall be stowed within reach of the lifting hooks unless adequate means of transport is provided

206. Which one of the listed requirements regarding the stowage of rescue boats do not correspond to present regulations? (SOLAS III/14)

a).Rescue boats shall be stowed in aposition suitable for launching and recovery

b).Rescue boats shall be stowed so neither the rescue boat nor its launching arrangements will interfere with any survival craft at any other launching station

c).Rescue boats shall be stowed attached to launching appliances

d).Rescue boats shall be stowed in a state of continous readiness for launching in not more than 5 minutes

207. Which one of the listed requirements regarding the launching and recovery arrangements for survival crafts do not correspond to present regulations? (SOLAS III/15)

a).Only one type of launching and recovery arrangements shall be used for similar survival crafts on board the ship

b).Each lifeboat shall be provided with an appliance which is capable of launching and recovering the lifeboat

c).Launching and recovery arrangements shall be such that the operator can observe the survival craft during launching and, for lifeboats, during recovery

d) Means shall be available to prevent any discharge of water on to survival crafts during abandonment

208. Which one of the listed requirements regarding the launching and recovery arrangements for rescue boats do not correspond to present regulations? (SOLAS III/16)

a) The release mechanism shall be of an automatic type approved by the Administration

b) Embarcation and launching arrangements shall be such that the rescue boat can be boarded and launched in the shortest possible time

c) Launching shall be possible at ship`s headway speed up to 5 knots in calm weather

d) Rapid recovery shall be possible with the boats full compliment of persons and equipment

209. How often are abandon ship drill and fire drill required to be held on passenger ships, according to SOLAS?

a) Weekly

b) Every second week

c) Once a month

d) Every third week

210. How often should an inflatable liferaft be serviced at an approved service station?

a) Every 24 months

b) Every 6 months

c) Every 5 years

d) Every 12 months

211. How is the painter attached to the lifeboat released once the boat is waterborne and ready to leave?

a) Remove the toggle which will release the painter

b) Cut it with the axe provided

c) Cut it with the knife contained in the equipment locker

d) The painter will automatically part by the weak when the boat goes astern to clear the ship

212. How much liferaft capacity should be provided on a conventional cargo ship of more than 85 meters in length, built after July 1986?

a) 25% of the complement on each side of the ship

b) 75% of the complement on each side of the ship

c) 100% of the complement if it can be readily launched on either side of the ship. If it cannot be readily launched on either side, 100% must be provided on each side

d) 50% of the complement on each side of the ship

213. How much liferaft capacity should be provided on a conventional cargo ship of more than 85 meters in length?

a) 100% of the ships complement on each side

b) 50% of the ships complement on each side

c) 125% of the ships complement on each side

d) 150% of the ships complement on each side

214. During helicopter evacuation of an injured man, what course should the ship steer?

a) Directly into the wind

b) With the wind fine on the bow opposite to the helicopter operating area

c) As instructed by the helicopter pilot

d) With the wind astern so that the effect of the wind is reduced as much as possible

215. If conditions permit, which is the best way to board a liferaft which is floating close to the ship?

a) Wearing a lifejacket, jump into the water close to the raft and then swim to it

b) Jump onto the raft itself

c) Jump into the water close to the raft, without a lifejacket, as this will make it easier to swim and board the liferaft

d) Use a rope ladder close to the raft to climb down and board

216. How many 'thermal protective aids' are required to be carried on vessels with open lifeboats?

a) Each lifeboat should carry the same number of thermal protective aids as the number of persons it is designed to carry

b) They are not required, providing the boat has a canvas canopy which can be rigged in cold weather

c) 10 in each lifeboat

d) One for each person on board who is not provided with an immersion suit

217. Which of the following items do not necessarily have to be included in an abandon ship drill?(SOLAS III/18.3.4)

a) Starting and operating radio life-saving appliances

b) Starting and operating lifeboat engines

c) Checking that passenger and crew are suitably dressed

d) Ckecking that lifejackets are correctly donned

218. Which one of the listed requirements regarding abandon ship drills do not correspond to present regulations? (SOLAS III/18.3.5

a) Different lifeboats shall, as far as practicable, be lowered at successive drills

b) Drills shall, as far as practicable, be conducted as there were an actual emergency

c) Each lifeboat shall be launched with its assigned crew, and manouvered in the water at least once every three months during an abandon ship drill

d) On ship on short international vayages, each lifeboat shall be launched and manouvered in the water at least every six months

219. Which one of the listed requirements regarding lifejackets do not correspond to present regulations? (SOLAS III/32) A lifejacket shall be so constructed that:

a) It is comfortable to wear

b) It can be correctly donned within 1 minute without assistance

c) Is capable of being worn inside out, or as far as possible can not be incorrectly donned

d) It allows the wearer to jump from any height without injury and without damaging the lifejacket

220. How much water would you allow per person as officer in charge of the lifeboat, following an abandon ship operation?

a) Nothing for the first 24 hours, then 1/2 litre per day (more in the tropics)

b) 1/2 litre immediately, followed by 1/4 litre per day (more in the tropics)

c) Nothing for the first 48 hours, then 1/4 litre per day (more in the tropics)

d) Nothing for the first 24 hours, then 1/4 litre per day (more in thetropics)

221. How much water per person is provided in a lifeboat not equiped with a desalting apparatus?

a) 3 litre

b) 5 litre

c) 2 litre

d) 1,5 litre

222. How much water per person is provided in a lifeboat not equiped with a desalting apparatus?

a) 1,5 litre

b) 5 litre

c) 2 litre

d) 3 litre

223. Which of the following actions should be done before throwing this type of inflatable liferaft over the side?

a) Check that the painter is made fast to a secure point and that the sea below is clear

b) Inflate it on deck and then launch it if clear below

c) Take the top off the container to enable raft to inflate once in the water. If all clear, throw raft over side

d) Disconnect the painter and launch it, checking that all is clear below

224. How much food per person is supplied on a liferaft?

a) Not less than 5000kj

b) Not less than 20000kj

c) None only barley sugar sweets supplied

d) Not less than 10000kj

225. How much food per person is supplied in a lifeboat?

a) Not less than 10000kj

b) Not less than 5000kj

c) Not less than 20000kj

d) None only barley sugar sweets supplied

226. How many Radar Transponders (SART) are required to be carried onboard a ship for use in survival crafts?

a) One in each lifeboat

b) Two on each side of the ship

c) 2 pieces for ships of 500 GRT and upwards and all passager ships

d) One on each side of the ship

227. What is the minimum number of channels required for the portable two way VHF`s for survival craft?

a) Channel 16 only

b) Channels 16&12

c) Channels 6,12&16

d) Channel 16 and minimum others simplex channel in VHF band

228. During a helicopter evacuation, the helicopter lowers his winch wire to the deck. Which of the following should NOT be done with the winch wire?

a) All of the mentioned actions

b) Secure it to a strong point on deck

c) Touch the wire with bare hands

d) Secure it to the deck with a weak link

229. How many rescue boats should be provided on passenger ships of 500 gross tons and above?

a) One up to 2000 gross tons, then two rescue boats

b) None providing the ship has lifeboats

c) Two

d) One

230. What equipment is provided in a liferaft to help you keep warm in cold weather?

a) At least 10% of the rafts complement with a minimum of 2 thermal protective aids are provided

b) Thermal protective aids for each person the floor of the raft has a second layer which can be inflated to

c) Help insulation, in addition to the thermal protective aids (10% of complement, minimum 2)

d) The floor of the raft has a second layer which can be inflated to give additional insulation from the cold water

231. What is the purpose of the 'Bowsing tackle' (block and tackle) supplied at each end of the lifeboat?

a) It is designed to pull the boat alongside the embarkation deck after the tricing pennents have been released

b) It is a general purpose tackle to be used in any type of emergency

c) It enables the boat to be secured to the embarkation deck so that the wire falls can be released for changing or end for ending

d) It keeps the boat alongside the embarkation deck so that the tricing pennents can be released

232. An enclosed lifeboat is fitted with a self-contained air support system. With the engine running, what is the minimum period of time the air should remain safe and breathable?

a) 10 minutes

b) 5 minutes

c) 20 minutes

d) 30 minutes

233. During search and rescue operations an aircraft crosses the wake of your vessel close astern at low altitude. What does it indicate, if the aircraft rocks its wings, opens and closes the throttle or changes the propeller pitch?

a) Follow my direction to the ship in distress

b) Please remain where you are and await further instructions

c) Please call me on VHF 16 as you are not answering my calls

d) Your assistance is no longer required

234. What signal, if any, is specified in SOLAS as the 'Abandon ship' signal?

a) Seven short blasts followed by one long blast

b) Four long blasts

c) The 'Abandon ship' signal is not specified, only the general emergency alarm signal is stated

d) Six short blasts followed by one long blast

235. Passenger ships have a normal requirement of 1 lifejacket per person +10% for children. In addition to this, how many lifejackets have to be provided on deck or at the muster stations?

a) 15% extra

b) 25% extra

c) 5% extra

d) 10% extra

236. Referring to the SOLAS convention, how often should a crew member on a cargo ship participate in one abandon ship drill and one fire drill?

a) Every second week

b) This is only required when he joins the ship

c) Monthly

d) Weekly

237. Which one of the listed requirements regarding enclosures of totally enclosed lifeboats do not correspond to present regulation? The enclosures shall be provided with:

a) Windows on both sides which can be closed watertight and opened for ventilation

b) Access hatches which can be closed watertight

c) Access hatches capable of being opened and closed from both sides

d) Arrangement for rowing

238. Which one of the listed requirements regarding lifeboat propulsion do not correspond to present regulations?

a) The engine shall beprovided with an electric power starting system with rechargeable energy batteries

b) Every lifeboat shall be powered by a compression ignition engine using fuel with a flamepoint of not less than 44grdC

c) Means shall be provided for recharging all engine-starting, radio and searchlight batteries

d) Water resistant instruction for starting and operating the engine shall be provided

239. Which one of the listed requirements regarding enclosures of totally enclosed lifeboats do not correspond to present regulation? The totally enclosed lifeboats shall:

a) Have self bailing arrangements

b) Have safety belts to be designed to hold a person of 100 kg securely in place with the lifeboat in a capsized position

c) Have automatic self righting abilities

d) Automatically attain a position in damaged condition, providing an above water escape for its occupants

240. Which one of the listed requirements regarding the stability of inflatable liferafts do not correspond to present regulations? The stability of inflatable liferafts shall be such that:

a) In the event of capsizing it will automatically attain a position providing an above water escape

b) It is stable in a seaway when fully inflated and floating with the canopy uppermost

c) When floating in the inverted position it can be righted by oneperson

d) It can be towed with full complement at speeds up to 3 knots

241. Which one of the listes requirements regarding rescue boat equipment do not correspond to present regulations? The normal equipment of every rescue boat shall include:

a) Immersion suits for the number of persons the boat is permitted to accommodate

b) A first-aid outfit in a watertight case

c) Two buoyant rescue quoits attached to not less than 30m of line

d) An efficient radar reflector

242. Which one of the listed requirements regarding service and maintenance of life-saving appliances do not correspond to present regulations?

a) Instructions for onboard maintenance of life saving appliances in accordance with the regulations shall be provided

b) Maintenance and repair shall becarried out in accordance with the regulations

c) Spares and repair requirement shall be provided for components subject to excessive wear and consumption

d) At least one member of the crew shall hold a repairman certificate for life saving equipment

243. Which one of the listed requirements regarding the construction of lifeboats do not correspond to present regulations? The lifeboat shall:

a) Have permanent boarding arrangements on both sides to enable persons in the water to board the lifeboat

b) Have hull of fire -retardant or non combustible materials

c) Have sufficient strength to be safely lowered into the water with full compliment

d) Be capable of being launched and towed when the ship is making headway of 5 knots in calm weather

244. Which one of the listed requirements regarding 'week links' for float free arrangements for liferafts do not correspond to present regulations? Week links shall:

a) Release the liferaft at a depth of not more than 4 metres

b) Not break by force required to pull painter from the lifeboat container

c) Be of sufficient strength to permit inflation of the liferaft

d) Break under a strain of approximate 2.2 kN

245. Which one of the listed requirements regarding thermal protective aids do not correspond to present regulations? The thermal protective aids shall:

a) Cover the whole body except the face of a person wearing a lifejacket

b) Be unpacked and easily donned in a survival craft without assistance

c) Permit the wearer to swim a short distance through the water and board a survival craft

d) Permit the wearer to remove it in water in not more than two minutes

246. Which one of the listed requirements regarding life saving appliances do not correspond to present regulations?

a) All prescribed life saving appliances shall be made of non-combustible or fire retardant material

b) All prescribed life saving appliances shall be fitter with retro reflective material which will assist in detection

c) All prescribed life saving appliances shall be of a highly visible colour on parts where this will assist detection

d) All prescribed life saving appliances shall be resistant to deterioration where explosed to sunlight

247. Which one of the listed routine test and inspections of life-saving appliances is not required by the regulations?

a) Inspection of life saving appliances, including lifeboat equipment shall be carried out monthly to ensure they are complete and in good order

b) Survival crafts and rescue boats with launching appliances shall be visually inspected weekly to ensure they are ready for use

c) Lifeboat engines to be run for at least 3 minutes every week

d) General emergency alarm to be tested daily

248. Which one of the listed requirements regarding immersion suits do not correspond to present regulations? The immersion suit shall be made of waterproof materials and constructed such the

a) It is provided with arrangements to reduce free air in the legs of the suit

b) It will cover the whole body with the exception of the face

c) It will have sufficient built in buoyancy to avoid y the use of a lifejacket

d) It can be unpacked and donned without assistance within 2 minutes

249. Which one of the listed requirements regarding abandon ship and fire drills do not correspond to present regulations?

a) Each member of the crew shall participate in at least one abandon ship drill and one fire drill every month

b) On all international voyages, except short voyages, muster of passengers shall take place within 24 hours after embarkation

c) On all short international voyages, muster of passengers shall take place as soon as possible after departure

d) A training manual shall be provided in each crew messroom and recreation room or in each cabin

250. Which of the listed requirements for cargo ships regarding personal life saving appliances does not correspond to present regulations?

a) Ships with a length of 100 metres or less shall carry minimum 8 lifebuoys

b) Self-igniting lights for lifebuoys required on tankers shall be of an electric battery type

c) Cargo ships of less than 85 metres in length shall, as a general rule, carry immersion suits for every person onboard

d) Ships fitted with free-fall life-boats may carry thermal protective aids instead of immersion suits

250. Which one of the listed requirements for passenger ships regarding personal life-saving appliances do not correspond to present regulations?

a) Three immersion suits and a thermal protective aid for every person to be accommodated in the lifeboat and not provided with an immersion suit

b) For persons to be accommodated in totally or partially enclosed lifeboats immersion suits and thermal protective aids need not be carried

c) Passenger ships of under 60 metres in length shall carry not less than six lifebuoys provided with self- igniting lights

d) On all international voyages (except on short voyages) all lifejackets shall be fitted with a light and a smoke signal

252. When cross flooding arrangements to correct unsymmetrical flooding and excessive hee angels in damaged condition are installed in passenger ships, what is the maximum time allowed for equalization?

a) 15 minutes

b) 10 minutes

c) 20 minutes

d) 30 minutes

253. Which international organization is preparing conventions and rules for seafaring nations?

a) International Maritime Organization (IMO)

b) International Labour Organization (ILO)

c) International Marine Association (IMA)

d) International Ocean Safety Organization (IOSO)

254. How ofter shall drills for the operation of watertight doors, side scuttles, valves and closing mechanism of scuppers, ash-chutes and rubbish chutes take place in passenger ships?

a) Weekly

b) Daily

c) Every two weeks

d) Every month

255. What is a contingency plan for ships?

a) Plan for safety preparedness

b) Plan for next voyage

c) Loading plan for general cargo

d) Plan for maintenance and repair

256. What is a 'passenger' according to SOLAS regulations?

a) Any person holding a ticket and travelling with a passenger ship

b) Any person paying their voyage regardless of ship type

c) Every person other than the Captain and the members of the crew or other persons employed or engaged onboard the ship in the business of that ship

d) Everyone who travels with a passenger ship

257. What does the abbrevation SOLAS mean?

a) International Conference for Security of Loads aboard Ships

b) International Rules for Safe Ocean Lines and Sailingroutes

c) International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea

d) International Agreement for Security of Load and Ships

258. Which one of the listed requirements regarding buoyant smoke signals do not correspond to present regulations? The buoyant smoke signal shall:

a) Give a bright red light during the entire emission time

b) Not be swamped in a seaway

c) Emit smoke for at least 3 minutes when floating in calm water

d) Continue to emit smoke when submerged in water for a period of 10 seconds under 10cm of water

259. Which one of the listed requirements regarding containers for inflatable liferafts do not correspond to present regulations? The liferaft shall be packed in containers that are:

a) Completely watertight

b) So constructed as to withstand hard weather condition encountered at sea

c) Of sufficient buoyancy to operate the inflation mechanism should the ship sink

d) Marked with the date when last serviced

260. Which one of the listed requirements regarding equipment for inflatable liferafts do not correspond to present regulations? The inflatable liferaft shall be fitted with:

a) A buoyant lifeline becketed around the outside of the liferaft

b) A manually controlled lamp inside the raft

c) One repair outfit for repairing punctures in buoyancy compartments

d) One topping-up pump or bellows

261. Which one of the listed requirements regarding lifeboat fitting do not correspond to present regulations? All lifeboats shall be fitted with:

a) Effective means for bailing or have self bailing arrangement

b) Release device to enable foreward painter to be released under tension

c) A remotely operated steering arrangement

d) A buoyant lifeline becketed around the outside of the lifeboat

262. Which one of the listed requirements regarding lifeboat equipment do not correspond to present regulations? All lifeboat equipment shall:

a) Be made of fire-retardant material

b) Be secured in the lifeboat (except boat hooks) by lashings, storage in lockers, compartments, brackets or similar arrangement

c) Be secured in a manner as not to interfer with abandonment procedures

d) Be as small and of as little mass as possible

263. Which one of the listed requirements regarding lifeboat equipment do not correspond to present regulations? The normal equipment of every lifeboat shall include:

a) Sea-charts and navigating equipment

b) A survival manual

c) Two hatches

d) One copy of prescribed lifesaving signals

264. Which one of the listed requirements regarding partially enclosed lifeboats do not correspond to present regulations? The canopy between rigid covers shall be so arranged that:

a) It is insulated to protect occupants against heat and cold

b) The occupants can escape in case of capsizing

c) It has windows to admit sufficient daylight inside the lifeboat with the canopy closed

d) It can easily be eracted by two persons

265. Which one of the listed requirements regarding self righting partially enclosed lifeboats do not correspond to present regulations? Self righting partially closed lifeboats shall have:

a) Safety belts fitted at each indicated seating position

b) Stability for inherently or automatically self -righting with full or partial complement

c) Sufficient number of pumps and bailers

d) Permanently attached foldable canopy over open parts

266. Which one of the listed requirements regarding freefall launching do not correspond to present regulations? All launching appliances shall:

a) Be so arranged that no excessive force is experienced by the occupants during launch

b) Have ramp angle and length to ensure that the survival craft effectively clears the ship

c) Have release mechanism constructed from non corrosive material

d) Be efficiently protected against corrosion

267. Which one of the listed requirements regarding line throwing appliances do not correspond to present regulations? Every line throwing appliance shall:

a) Have a sufficient length of non -combustible line behind the rocket

b) Have brief instruction or diagram illustrating the use of the line throwing apparatus

c) Have projectiles (rockets) capable of carrying the line at least 230m in calm weather

d) Be capable of carrying the line with reasonable accuracy

268. Which one of the listed requirements regarding the general emergency alarm system do not correspond to present regulations? The general emergency alarm system shall:

a) Be audible through all accomodation and crew working spaces

b) Have electric alarm bells (or claxons) powered from the ship`s main and emergency sources of electric power

c) Be capable of operation from fire stations aboard the ship

d) Be able of sounding the emergency alarm signal by the ships whistle or siren, and additionally on electrically operated bells or claxons

269. The training manual shall contain instructions and information in easily understood terms and illustrated wherever possible. Which of the following objects do not have to be explained in detail in the manual according to present regulations?

a) Donning of lifejackets and immersion suits

b) Muster of assigned stations

c) Boarding, launching and clearing of the survival crafts and rescue boats

d) Donning of fire protection clothing

270. The training manual shall contain instructions and information in easily understood terms and illustrated wherever possible. Which of the following objects do not have to be explained in detail in the manual according to present regulations?

a) Use of breathing apparatus

b) Method and use of devices for protection in launching areas

c) Method of launching from inside survival craft

d) Release from launching applications

271. Instructions for onboard maintenance of life saving applainces shall be easily understood and illustrated wherever possible. Which of the following items do not necessarily have to be included in the instructions according to present regulations?

a) List of replaceable parts

b) Log for records of inspections and maintenance

c) Check list for periodic inspections

d) Schedule for periodic maintenance

272. The muster list shall specify details of general alarm signal and also actions to be taken by crew and passengers when the alarm is sounded. Which of the following actions do not necessarily have to be included in the muster list? The muster list shall:

a) Specify substitutes for key persons who may become disabled

b) Specify how the order to abandon ship will be given

c) Be prepared and approved by the Administration before the ship proceeds to sea

d) Specify which officers are assigned to ensure that life saving and fire-fighting appliances are maintained in good condition

273. Which of the following types/sizes of vessels in international trade do not have to be fitted with a radiotelephone station?

a) Passenger ships of less than 100 tons gross

b) Passenger ships carrying less than 36 passengers

c) Cargo ships of 300 1600 tons gross

d) Cargo ships below 300 tons gross

274. Each ship fitted with a radiotelephone station according to the regulations shall listen on the distress frequency during navigation. For how many hours a day according to the regulations?

a) hours VHF channel 16

b) 12 hours VHF channel 16

c) 16 hours VHF channel 16

d) 24 hours VHF channel 16

275. What is the correct definition of: boat drill?

a) To secure the boats

b) To launch the boats

c) Training in lifeboat handling

d) To drill all boats

276. What will you bring in a lifeboat if the ship is abondoned?

a) All valuables like money, jewelry etc.

b) All pets that will most likely not be able to enter the boat by themselves

c) Warm clothes, blankets and lifevests

d) As much biscuit and canned food as possible

277. On every ship at least three two way radiotephone apparatus shall be provided for communication between survival craft and survival craft-ship-rescue boat. These apparatus shall fulfill certain requirements. Which of the following requirements do not correspond to present regulations? (SOLAS III/6.2.2 and IV/14- The two way radiotelephone apparatus shall:

a) Be so designed that it can be operated by unskilled person

b) Be portable and capable of beeing used for onboard communication

c) Be maintained in a satisfactory condition, and, the batteries shall be only rechargeable

d) Be operated in the VHF -band and have the frequency 156.8 MHz (channel 16) included

278.You are duty officer on the bridge. An eye witness is reporting man-overboard. Which of the following actions are to be considered as the correct manoeuvre in this situation?

a) Direct Turn

b) Evinrude Turn

c) Williamson Turn

d) Scharnow Turn

279.Under GMDSS rules the trading area A1 can be considered to be:

a) Within the coverage of INMARSAT

b) Polar region

c)    Within the radiotelephone coverage of at least one VHF coastal station in which continuos DSC available

d)      Within range of MF coast radio stations

280.What is the general emergency alarm signal as specified in SOLAS?

a)      Seven or more short blasts followed by one long blast   

b)      Six or more short blasts followed by one long

c)      One long blast followed by six short blasts

d)      Continuous ringing of the alarm

281.How often should the lifeboat wire falls be turned and renewed?

a)    Turned at intervals of not more than 30 months and renewed every 5 years

b)    Turned every 2 years and renewed every 4 years

c)    Turned every 30 months and needs only to be renewed if the wire is in poor condition

e)      Renewed every three years

282.A ship is fitted with david launched liferafts. How often should onboard training take place, including, when practicable, the inflation and lowering of a liferaft?

a)      Every three months

b)      Every year

c)      Every four months

d)      Every month

283.Having boarded the liferaft, how do you release the painter?

a)      Cut it with the axe provided

b)      Wait for it to break as it is provided with a weak link

c)      Cut it with the safety knife stowed on the exterior of the canopy close to the painter attachment point

d)      Let go the quick release toggle

284.How many thermal protective aids are carried in each liferaft?

a)          10%of the number of persons the liferaft is designed to carry, or two, whichever is the greatest

b)         

c)         

d)          Nil

285.How many buoyant smoke signals are carried in each liferaft?

a)     

b)      Nil

c)     

d)     

286.How many hand held distress flares are carried in each liferaft?

a)     

b)     

c)     

d)     

287.How many rocket parachute flares are carried in each liferaft?

a)     

b)     

c)      Nil

d)     

288.How many buoyant smoke signals are carried in each liferaft?

a)     

b)     

c)     

d)     

289.How many hand held distress flares are carried in each lifeboat?

a)     

b)     

c)     

d)     

290.How many rocket parachute flares are carried in each lifeboat?

a)     

b)     

c)      Nil

d)     

291.What is the minimum number of immersion suits that are required to be provided for each open lifeboat under SOLAS rules?

a)      Nil

b)     

c)     

d)     

292.How would you know how many people a lifeboat is supposed to hold?

a)      Ask one of the deck officers

b)      No fixed number as it depends on the people`s size

c)      The number of persons should be clearly stated on the outside of the boats bow

d)      Fill the boat up until no more space is left

293.How much water per person is provided in a lifeboat not equiped with a desalting apparatus?

a)      litre

b)      litre

c)      litre

d)      1,5 litre

294.How much water per person is provided in a lifeboat not equiped with a desalting apparatus?

a)      1,5 litre

b)      litre

c)      litre

d)      litre

295.You are approaching the shore in a lifeboat when you see a person holding a white flag. He is moving it in a horizontal motion from side to side. What does this indicate?

a)      Stay offshore, rescue boat is coming   

b)      Standby for a rocket line to assist you

c)      It is OK to land here

d)      Landing here is highly dangerous

296.Approaching the shore in a lifeboat you see a person holding a white flag which he moves in a vertical motion. What does this indicate?

a)Wait offshore, assistance will be sent to you

b)               Landing here is highly dangerous, you should proceed in the direction of the flag

c)This is the best place to land

d)               Landing here is highly dangerous

297.Which of the following actions should be done before throwing this type of inflatable liferaft over the side?

a)Check that the painter is made fast to a secure point and that the sea below is clear

b)               Inflate it on deck and then launch it if clear below

c)Take the top off the container to enable raft to inflate once in the water. If all clear, throw raft over side

d)               Disconnect the painter and launch it, checking that all is clear below

298.How should the painter of a liferaft which is fitted with a hydrostaticrelease be secured to the ship?

a)   Directly to a secure point on the ship

b)  Secure to the part of the hydrostatic release that is designed to break free

c)   It should not be secured in any way

d)  Secured via a weak link to a secure part of the ship

299.GMDSS regulations require that vessels carry two way VHF for survival craft. How many are required, and when do the regulations apply?

a)      None at present. 3sets on all ships from August 1995

b)      One per lifeboat and one spare from August 1993

c)      3 sets for ships of 500 GRT and upwards and all passager ships

d)      3 sets. All vessels from August 1993

300.How should the hook be released from a davit lowered liferaft?

a)      Just prior to reaching the water, the lanyard should be pulled. This sets the hook which will automatically release once the raft is waterborne

b)      Unscrew the shackle pin

c)      Wait until the raft is waterborne, then pull the lanyard

d)      Cut the weak link on the wire with the axe provided

301.What equipment is provided in a liferaft to help you keep warm in cold weather?

a)      At least 10% of the rafts complement with a minimum of 2 thermal protective aids are provided

b)      Thermal protective aids for each person the floor of the raft has a second layer which can be inflated to

c)      Help insulation, in addition to the thermal protective aids (10% of complement, minimum 2)

d)      The floor of the raft has a second layer which can be inflated to give additional insulation from the cold water

302.You are starting to get low on water in the lifeboat. What should you do?

a)      Collect rain water

b)      Use sea water

c)      Mix sea water with 50% fresh water

d)      Drink urine

303. You have abandoned ship in a liferaft. Which of the following actions should you take?

a)      Organize a lookout system

b)      Start paddling in the direction of the nearest land

c)      Join up with any other survival craft and stream the sea anchor

d)      Organize a lookout system and join up with other survival craft if possible. You should also stream the sea anchor

304.An enclosed lifeboat is fitted with a self-contained air support system. With the engine running, what is the minimum period of time the air should remain safe and breathable?

a)      10 minutes

b)      5 minutes

c)     20 minutes

d)    30 minutes

305.During search and rescue operations an aircraft crosses the wake of your vessel close astern at low altitude. What does it indicate, if the aircraft rocks its wings, opens and closes the throttle or changes the propeller pitch?

a)      Follow my direction to the ship in distress

b)      Please remain where you are and await further instructions

c)      Please call me on VHF 16 as you are not answering my calls

d)      Your assistance is no longer required

306.What signal, if any, is specified in SOLAS as the 'Abandon ship' signal?

a)      Seven short blasts followed by one long blast

b)      Four long blasts

c)      The 'Abandon ship' signal is not specified, only the general emergency alarm signal is stated

d)      Six short blasts followed by one long blast

307.How often should each lifeboat be lowered into the water and manoeuvred with its operating crew aboard under SOLAS regulations?

a)      At least every three months

b)      Monthly

c)      At least every six months

d)      Once a year

308.Referring to the SOLAS convention, how often should a crew member on a cargo ship participate in one abandon ship drill and one fire drill?

a)      Every second week

b)      This is only required when he joins the ship

c)      Monthly

d)      Weekly

309.Which one of the listed requirements regarding enclosures of totally enclosed lifeboats do not correspond to present regulation? The enclosures shall be provided with:

a)      Windows on both sides which can be closed watertight and opened for ventilation

b)      Access hatches which can be closed watertight

c)      Access hatches capable of being opened and closed from both sides

d)      Arrangement for rowing

310.Which one of the listed requirements regarding inflatable liferafts do not correspond to present regulations? The inflatable liferaft shall:

a)      Have at least two entrances

b)      Have a floor capable of being sufficiently insulated against cold by means of inflated compartments, or by equally efficient means not dependant on inflation

c)      Maintain its form after inflation with full complement

d)      Be prevented from pressure exceeding twice the working pressure, either by relief valves or by limited gas supply

311.Which one of the listed requirements regarding rigid liferafts do not correspond to present

regulations? The liferaft shall have:

a)      A manually controlled lamp, visible of at least 2 miles, fitted at the top of the canopy

b)      A manually controlled lamp fitted inside the liferaft

c)      All entrances fitted with rigid boarding ramps for boarding the liferaft at sea

d)      Floor preventing the ingress of water

312.Which one of the listed requirements regarding hydrostatic release unit for float free arrangements for liferafts does not correspond to present regulations? Hydrostatic release units shall:

a)      Be constructed of compatible material to prevent malfunction

b)      Be constructed as to prevent release by seas washing over the unit

c)      Be provided with a painter system with a breaking strength of not more than 2.2 kN

d)      Be permanently marked with type and serial number

313.Which one of the listed requirements regarding liferafts do not correspond to present regulations? Every liferaft shall be so constructed that:

a)      It`s canopy has viewing ports in all directions

b)      It can be dropped from a height of at least 18 metres

c)      It can withstand repeated jumps from a height of 4.5 metres

d)      It can be towed at a speed of 3 knots with full complement

314.Which one of the listed requirements regarding the use of an immersion suit do not correspond to present regulation? The suit shall permit the wearer to:

a)      Perform normal duties during abandonment

b)      Swim a short distance through the water and board a survival craft

c)      Climb up and down vertical ladders from the survival craft embarkation point to the water

d)      Jump from a height of 4.5m into the water without being injured or damaging the suit

315.Which one of the listed requirements regarding liferaft equipment do not correspond to present regulations? The normal equipment of every liferaft shall consist of:

a)      Instructions on how to survive

b)      Instructions for immediate action

c)      One set of fishing tackle

d)      Thermal protective aids for the number of persons the liferaft is permitted to accommodate

316.Which one of the listed requirements regarding hand flares do not correspond to present regulations? The hand flare shall:

a)      Have a burning period of not less than 1 minute

b)      Continue burning after being immersed for 10 seconds under water

c)      Emit smoke of a highly visible colour

d)      Have a self contained means of ignition

317.Which radio frequency/channels are reserved for distress, urgensy and safety communication

a)      2182kHz/VHF channel 6

b)      2188 kHz/VHF channel 8

c)      2182 kHz and VHF channel 16

d)      2128kHz/VHF channel 16

318.How often shall drills for the operation of watertight doors, side scuttles, valves and closing mechanism of scuppers, ash-chutes and rubbish chutes take place in passenger ships?

a)      Weekly

b)      Daily

c)      Every two weeks

d)      Every month

319.Which one of the listed requirements regarding rocket parachute flares do not correspond to present regulations? The rocket parachute flares shall:

a)      Have brief instructions clearly illustrating the use of the flare

b)      Have integral means of ignition

c)      Burn with a bright orange colour

d)      Be contained in a water resistant casing

320. You will turn your vessel in a narrow canal by use of two tugs with same power. The wind varies in the range moderate/strong. Where/how to use the tugs?

Maximizeaza

 


a) Pushing, made fast in the vessel

b) Pushing, not made fast in the vessel

c) Pulling, made fast in the vessel

d) One tug pushing, one tug pulling

321. Your vessel is to turn in a narrow canal by use of one tug (turn to port with the bow). In which position and how would you use the tug? (Vessels engine will be used as well).

Maximizeaza

a) Make the tug fast aft for pulling

b) Make the tug fast in centre bow fairlead for pulling

c) Make the tug fast on port shoulder to pull

d) Make the tug fast on starboard shoulder to push

322. Your vessel is to unmoor. Two tugs will assist at the unmooring. Which position and how do you want to use the tugs?

Maximizeaza

a) Fast FWD and AFT in center lead to pull the vessel out from the jetty and make it in position for voyage

b) Pushing on vessel's flat side to keep the vessel in position when unmooring

c) Make fast on ship's flat side to keep the vessel in position when unmooring and pull vessel out from the jetty

d) Make fast the forward tug, and the aft tug stand by

323. Your vessel is going alongside. One tug will assist at the mooring. Which position and how do you want to use the tug?

Maximizeaza

a) Make fast aft to pull when needed

b) Make fast forward to pull when needed

c) Make fast on the vessel's shoulder to push and pull

d) Pushing at vessel's flat side where it is needed

324. Your vessel is going alongside a pier. Two tugs will assist at the mooring. Which position and how do you want to use the tugs?

Maximizeaza

a) Pushing on ship's flat side and make fast in the vessel for pulling if needed

b) Fast FWD and AFT in center lead

c) Pushing on ship's flat side not made fast to be able to move in best position if needed

d) One made fast forward for pulling, one pushing aft

325. You will anchor a VLCC at a depth of 80 meters in open water with swell. How much chain will you use?

Maximizeaza

a) 11 shackles

b) 6 shackles

c) 8 shackles

d) 3 shackles

326. You are towing a vessel. The total length of the tow is 190 meters. What daylight signals are to be used?

Maximizeaza

a) No need of any signal

b) Two black balls

c) Diamond shape

d) One black ball

327. A vessel towing with a total length of 1350 meters, expecting strong wind from starboard side. The towing wire is connected 20 meters from towing vessels stern rail. What is to be done?

Maximizeaza

a) Secure the wire all way aft, to prevent wire moving out of center

b) No need to do anything

c) Stop the towing

d) Reduce the towing speed only

328. Cross Atlantic towing.Which of these systems would you use?

Maximizeaza

a) Wire connected to chain through center lead or anchor chain

b) Wire made fast in center lead

c) Wire made fast in vessel's leeward side

d) Towing Haw'ser made fast in center lead

329. A vessel towing with a total length of 1200 meters. The vessel in tow is 200 meters with a draught of 12,5 meters. Towing vessel length is 45 meters and draught 6 meters forward and 7,5 meters aft. What draught do you expect the maximum draught of towing to be?

Maximizeaza

a) 50 metres

b) 20 metres

c) 100 metres

d) 12,5 metres

330. You are berthed with a steady offshore beam wind of 30 knots. This wind suddenly increases to 60 knots. When this happens , the force driving the vessel off berth will be:

a) Quadrupled

b) Tripled

c) Doubled

d) Quintipled

331. Your vessel is berthed at a seaberth with an underkeel clearance of 5 times the draft and a cross or beam current of 1 knot is acting on you with force of, let us say, 50 tons. You move to another shallower berth with your draft exactly the same as before and with exactly the same beam current of 1 knot acting on you. However your underkeel clearance here is only 0.5 times the draft. If the current was exerting a force of 50 tons on you before, how much force will it exert now?

a) 150 tons

b) Remain at 50 tons

c) 25 tons

d) 75 tons

332. Two lines sent out and pretensioned equally have the same length, same breaking strength and same directional load. However, one is made of wire (which has a full load elastic elongation of about 1,5 % of its length) and the other made of nylon (which has a full load elongation of about 30 % of its length). If a sudden gust of wind increase the load on the lines, this increased load will be shared as follows:

a) Wire takes 45 % of the extra load. Rope takes 55 % of the extra load

b) Wire takes 55 % of the extra load. Rope takes 45 % of the extra load

c) By the wire and rope equally

d) Wire takes 95 % of the extra load. Rope takes 5 % of the extra load

333. Two synthetic fibre lines of the same size and material are run out and pretensioned at the berth. However one line (line A) is secured to a shore bollard twice as far as the other line (line B). If a sudden increase in wind now causes an extra load to come on the lines, the extra load will be shared by the lines as follows:

a) A will take 1/3 of the extra load. B will take 2/3 of the extra load

b) A will take 1/2 of the extra load. B will take 1/2 of the extra load

c) A will take 1/4 of the extra load. B will take the 3/4 of the extra load

d) A will take 3/4 of the extra load. B will take 1/4 of the extra load

334. It is important that the brake holding capacity of a self stowing winch drum should not exceed the breaking strength of the wire or rope wound onto it. A certain percentage of extra strength is therefore recommended for the wire or rope over the brake holding capacity of the winch. So, for a winch of brake holding capacity of 60 Tons you would order a wire of breaking strength:

a) 80 Tons

b) 75 Tons

c) 61 Tons

d) 100 Tons

335. If a nylon mooring rope gets wet by immersion in water it undergoes:

a) A decrease in strength of 20 %

b) No change in strength but some elongation

c) An increase in strength of 20 %

d) No change in strength or length

336. If you are required to splice an eye on a mooring wire (using the recommended 5 full tucks and 2 half tucks) the effective breaking strength of the wire will now be affected by the splice, and you would expect:

a) A reduction in strength of 10 % to 15 %

b) A reduction in strength of 30 % to 40 %

c) A reduction in strength of 1% to 5%.

d) No reduction in strength

337. How do you consider the indicated speed for berthing?

a) Too fast

b) Too slow

c) To be sufficient

d) It is up to the pilot to decide

338. Your ship is operating with a right handed propeller. Which angle of approach is most favourable? No wind or current.

a) No.2

b) No. 1

c) No. 3

d) I will leave it to the pilot

339. Your ship is operating with a right handed propeller. Before coming astern, how should you apply the rudder?

a) As with no. 2

b) As with no. 1

c) As with no. 3

d) I think the speed is too slow

340. Your ship is operating with a right handed propeller and no thrusters. What can you do to control your ship in the situation shown?

a) Let go port anchor 1 - 1,5 shackles

b) Give hard starboard rudder

c) Let go starboard anchor 1 - 1,5 shackles

d) Increase the speed

341. You are meeting with another ship in confined waters. What can happen as the ships approach each other?

a) The bows of the ships will be pushed away from each other

b) The bows of the ships will be sucked together

c) This does not apply to your vessel

d) There will be none of the mentioned effects

342. You are about to pass another ship in a close situation. What can happen in this situation?

a) The two ships will be pushed towards the banks

b) The bow of your ship will be sucked towards the stern of the other ship

c) Your ship will not be affected in this situation

d) Due to suction, the two ships will be sucked together

343. You are on ship A. What would you do before meeting ship B?

a) Increase speed to full ahead, 13 knots

b) Put the engine to full astern

c) Increase the speed to 8 knots

d) Stop the engine before meeting, and apply engine during meeting

344. You are performing an overtaking manoeuvre in confined waters. What should you watch out for?

a) That you keep your ship on full ahead

b) There is nothing special to watch out for

c) The bow may be sucked against, and the stern may be pushed away from the other ship as you pass

d) That the other ship does not increase its speed

345. You are transitting a narrow channel. What can happen in this situation?

a) The bow will be pushed from away from the bank

b) The bow will be sucked towards the bank

c) The stern will be pushed away from the bank

d) None of the mentioned will happen

346. In the shown situation, the bow of your ship is pushed away from the bank. How can you handle this?

a) Give hard port rudder to get the ship back in the middle of the channel

b) Do nothing as the ship will handle itself

c) Put your engine full astern to stop your ship

d) Give starboard rudder in order to balance the force of the bank effect and rudder effect

347. How will you define squat?

a) Increase in draft to the point on your ship which is closest to the bottom

b) The speed of your ship will increase

c) Decrease in draft of your ship

d) Squat is not relevant on your ship

348. How can you minimize the squat effect?

a) Maintain your course and speed

b) Do a zig-zag manoeuvre to reduce speed

c) Decrease the speed as much as practicable

d) Increase speed if the ship is not already on full ahead

349. What is the reason for the effect we call squat?

a) Increased velocity and decreased waterpressure around the ship's hull

b) Decreased velocity and increased water pressure around the ship's hull

c) Increased effect of gravity due to closeness of the sea bed

d) The bow and stern wave make the ship sink lower in the water

350. You are sailing in shallow water, with 15% Under Keel Clerance. How will the stopping distance be, compared to deep water?

a) The same as in all depths

b) About 1 ship length longer

c) Longer

d) Shorter

351. You are sailing in shallow water, with 15% Under Keel Clearance. Turning the ship around, what space do you need compared to deep water?

a) Need less space than normal

b) The turning diameter of your ship is the same for all water depths

c) To port less, to starboard more space

d) Need more space than normal

352. You are sailing in shallow water, with 15% Under Keel Clearance. With full RPM, what will your speed be compared to deep water?

a) Stay the same

b) The RPM will drop with 15% of full

c) Slower

d) Faster

353. You are sailing in shallow water, with 15% Under Keel Clearance. Coming full astern from full ahead, how will your course change be compared to deep water?

a) The heading will most likely change by a large amount

b) The heading will not change at all

c) The heading will change only slightly

d) Large change at first, then changing slightly

354. How will the ship behave if you have a 'black out' in the situation sketched below?

a) She will turn to port and the speed will drop gradually

b) She will continue on course and the speed will slowly drop

c) She will turn to starboard and the speed will slowly drop

d) The wind will not affect your ship whatsoever

355. Your ship is going astern right handed propeller as sketched below. How is the ship most likely to react?

a) The bow will go to port

b) The ship will go straight astern

c) The stern will 'back' into the wind

d) The stern will fall off to starboard

356. You are in confined waters. Is there any danger in the situation sketched below if you should loose engine power?

a) Your ship will loose headway, but there should be no immediate danger

b) She will drift to port, but rather slowly as you are loaded

c) She will sheer slowly to port

d) Your ship will sheer to starboard rather quickly with the possible consequence of grounding

357. Your ship is drifting in open sea with temporary engine malfunction. You are equipped with excellent navigation equipment. What should you do in this situation?

a) Ask the Chief Engineer when the engine will be ready

b) Go to bed and wait for the engine to be ready

c) Use the opportunity to plot direction and rate of drift for later use

d) Call the company immediately

358. You are drifting in open sea with a loaded VLCC, and you observe that the drift is SSE. Will the drift direction be the same for ballast condition?

a) Yes, it will be the same

b) Loaded or ballast condition have no effect on the drift.

c) In ballast condition the drift will be more to the east

d) No, drifting in ballast condition may be quite different.

359. You are drifting with a loaded VLCC in open sea. You have observed the direction and rate of drift. Can you do anything to change the direction and rate of drift?

a) We will just have to wait and see

b) We can apply the rudder although we have no engine power

c) We can trim the ship by stern as much as possible. This will most likely change the direction and rate of drift.

d) No, there is nothing I can do about that

360. Why is it important to determine how your ship is drifting in various conditions?

a) To determine if there is any danger of grounding or colliding with objects during drifting

b) To save fuel for the owner by 'sailing' the ship whenever possible

c) To know how far you can drift in a given period of time

d) To determine how many hours you have at your disposal before you need to call for assistance

361. You are steaming off a coast when they call from the bridge and tell you that the engine has stopped. They need a couple of hours to fix it, what will you do?

a) Call the Chief Engineer and tell him to hurry up

b) Call your company and ask for instructions

c) As soon as possible determine how the ship is drifting to establish if there is any danger

d) Relax as there is plenty of time before there is any danger

362. A ship is not turning around the center of gravity, but another point. What is the point called?

a) Point of no return

b) Point of radius

c) Pivot point

d) Point of turning

363. A ship is turning around a point called the 'pivot point'. What is the position of this invisible point when the ship is 'dead' in the water?

a) About same position as the center of gravity

b) Near the stern of the ship

c) Outside of the center line

d) Near the bow

364. Where do you think the 'pivot point' is located when your ship is going full speed ahead? No wind, current.

a) Near the stern

b) At about 1/6 of the ship's length from the stern

c) At about 1/6 of the ship's length from the bow

d) Amidships

365. Your ship is going full astern and making sternway. Where will the 'pivot point' be located? No wind, current.

a) At 1/6 of the ship's length from the stern   

b) At the center of gravity

c) Somewhere aft of the center of gravity, but it is impossible to pin point the exact location

d) At 1/6 of the ship's length off the bow

366. Your ship is going full ahead as you start to slow down. Where is the position of the 'pivot point' now? No wind, current.

a) It will move aft as the ship slows down

b) Same position as when the ship is on full ahead

c) The 'pivot point' will move to the stern   

d) It will move to the side of the center line

367. How do we define the location of the 'pivot point'?

a).The point on the ship where you have maximum sideways motion in a turn

b) The point on the ship where the forward motion is at maximum

c) The point on the ship where the sideways motion forward is at maximum

d) The point where the sideways motion of the ship`s centreline is zero.

368. The ship is in a sharp turn and the log shows sideways motion to port both forward and aft. Where is the 'pivot point' located?

a) At 1/6 of the ship's length aft of the bow, but in the center line

b) At the center of gravity

c) Outside the ship itself

d) Aft of amidships

369. Your diagram shows that you will need 2000m to stop your ship from full ahead in deep water. What will the stopping distance be in shallow water?

a) Longer

b) Shorter

c) No change

d) About 1500m

370. Your ship's initial speed is half ahead and your engine is put full astern. How will the stopping distance be compared to full speed?

a) It will be much longer

b) It will differ only slightly

c) It will be much shorter

d) It will be the same as full speed

371. Your ship is equipped with a right handed propeller. As you go full astern from full ahead, the ship is sheering to starboard. Is there anything you can do to reduce the change in heading?

a) Put the rudder hard to starboard to reduce the water flow to the right side of the propeller

b) No, there is nothing I can do

c) Put the rudder hard to port to reduce the water flow to the left side of the propeller

d) I can swing the rudder from side to side

372. What will the stopping distance of your ship be when proceeding with 8 knots and reversing to full astern?

a) 1500m

b) 5 ship lengths

c) The stopping distance is the same for all initial speeds

d) The sea trial tests may tell me, or else I can do a test myself to find aut

373. You want to stop your ship as quickly as possible without too much change in the heading. What can you do to achieve this?

a) Make a complete turning circle

b) Do a zig zag manoeuvre

c) Use the rudder hard over both sides while reducing engine power, so called 'high frequency rudder cycling'.

d) Put the engine full astern

374. You are on a VLCC and are approaching shallow water with Under Keel Clearance of 15%. What speed should you have when entering and when should you slow down?

a) Reduce to slow or less in due time before entering.

b) Maintain normal sea speed, no need to slow down.

c) About 10 knots, slow down 15 minutes before entering.

d) About 6 7 knots, slow down 30 minutes before entering.

375. When will we notice the effect of shallow water?

a) When Under Keel ClearanceC is 15% or less.

b) When Under Keel ClearanceC is 15% or less.

c) When Under Keel Clearance is 50% or less.

d) When Under Keel Clearance is 75% or less.

376. Do you think a ship's trim has any influence on steering abilities?

a) No, the ship will have the same steering ability unaffected by trim.

b) Yes, a ship usually steer better if trimmed by the bow.

c) No, it is usually best to have no trim at all.

d) Yes, the ship usually steer better if trimmed by the stern.

377. 'Overshoot' is an expression we use when talking about a ship's steering ability. What is the best way to determine how the 'overshoot' is on your ship?

a) Do a 20/20 degrees zig zag manoeuvre.

b) Do a 360 degrees turning circle.

c) Do a 540 degrees turning circle.

d) Do a standing turn.

378. When a conventional rudder is put hard over it creates a lift force and a drag force. When the ship has started to turn, how much lift force do you think remains if the rudder angle is decreased to 20 degrees from hard over position (35 degrees)?

a) About 10 %.

b) About 30 %.

c) About 50 %.

d) About 80 %.

379. Do you think there is any reduction in the rudder lift force if the propeller is stopped?

a) Yes, we will loose about 10% of the lift force.

b) No, we will maintain about 90% of the lift force

c) No, the lift force is not effected by the propeller.

d) Yes, the lift force will be dramatically reduced.

380. What is the correct way in approaching the SPM, taking the prevailing wind, current and waves into consideration?

a) As in example 3

b) As in example 4

c) As in example 2

d) As in example 1

381. You are on a loaded VLCC in shallow water. Do you think it's necessary to keep high speed on the ship in order for her to steer well?

a) No, VLCC's usually steer better in shallow water on low speed than other ships.

b) Yes, it is necessary to keep a high speed on the ship to steer well.

c) Yes, VLCC's steer poorly on low speed in shallow water.

d) No, it is best to reduce to half ahead for the ship to steer well.

382. Your ship is making sternway about 1,5 knots. Your rudder is hard to starboard. Will this have any effect on the ship`s behaviour?

a) No, the rudder will have no effect when the ship is making sternway, it should be in midship position when going astern

b) Yes, it will give the stern a lift force to port

c) No, the ship will go straight astern

d) Yes, it will give the stern a lift force to starboard

383. The maximum rudder angle on your ship is 35 degrees. Do you think this is the angle that the rudder is most effective?

a) No, the most effective rudder angle is about 25 to 30 degrees. This is because the rudder is 'stalling' at 35 degrees angle

b) No, the rudder is most effective at angles between 10 and 20 degrees

c) Yes, the rudder is most effective at max angle

d) No, the rudder is most effective at small rudder angles

384. The rudder is hard over, full ahead in shallow water.How much lift force remains when the engine is stopped?

a) About 80%

b) About 5%

c) About 10%

d) About 50%

385. When connecting a tugboat, what speed do you think is best for your vessel to maintain during this operation?

a) The speed should be less than 5 knots, normally 3 knots

b) It is best to stop the vessel completely before connecting

c) A tug may be connected at any convenient speed

d) The speed should be more than 7 knots

386. Your ship has right handed propeller and is on half ahead when you put her full astern to stop her. Do you think the rudder will have any effect while the ship is making headway?

a) No, the rudder should always be amidship when the propeller is going astern

b) No the rudder must be put midships, otherwise it could be destroyed

c) Yes, by putting the rudder hard to port the ship will go to port, even if the propeller is going astern

d) Yes, by putting the rudder hard stb.it will shield waterflow to the stb.side of the propeller and vice versa to port. This will effect turning of the ship.

387. Which of the alternative methods of using a tug when escorting your ship through narrow waters do you think is the most effective in case you loose steering power?

a) Running free alongside, ready to be made fast (figure 2)

b) Made fast forward on either shoulder, ready to push (figure 3)

c) Made fast in a line at the bow (figure 1)

d) The tug`s bow against my stern, made fast with lines. By moving the

tug to either side of my stern, this will help to steer the ship (figure 4

388. A tug is connected in a line at your bow. Will the bollard pull be the same at any speed?

a) No, when the speed exceeds 5 knots we have not much help in a tug

b) No, when the speed is increasing, the bollard is also increasing

c) Yes, the bollard is the same at any speed

d) We will have the best use of the tug when the ship makes sternway

389. Consider the situation sketched below. How will you distribute the power of the tugs when you want to move the ship sideways without any yaw?

a) Equal power on both tugs

b) Full power on the forward tug, the stern tug should hold back

c) Full power on the forward tug, reduce on the aft tug while checking the gyro

d) Full power on the aft tug, stop on the forward tug

390. Consider the situation sketched below. How will you distribute the power of the tugs when you want to move the ship sideways without any yaw?

a) Full power on the aft tug, reduce on the forward while checking the gyro

b) Full power on the aft tug, stop on the forward tug

c) Equal power on both tugs

d) Full power on the forward tug, the stern tug should hold back

391. Consider the situation sketched below. How will you distribute the power of the tugs when you want to move the ship sideways without any yaw?

a) Equal power on both tugs while checking the gyro

b) Full power on the aft tug, stop on the forward tug

c) Full power on the aft tug, reduce on the forward tug

d) Full power on the forward tug, the stern tug should hold back

392. What is meant when a vessel is said to have sinkage?

a) Sinkage is the extra draft a vessel obtains when she is comparatively heavily loaded both ends

b) Sinkage is the extra draft a vessel obtains when she is comparatively heavily loaded amidship

c) Sinkage is the change in draft a vessel obtains when moving through the water

d) Sinkage is the deepest draft a vessel obtains aft when moving through the water

393. You have made a turning circle at full speed in deep water. You are now going to make one with initial speed, slow ahead. Do you think the diameter will differ from that of initial full ahead?

a) Yes, it will be much greater with slow ahead

b) Yes, it will be a large difference in the turning diameter between full and slow ahead

c) The diameter will be the same whatever initial speed we have when starting the turn

d) Yes, it will be much smaller with slow ahead

394. You have made a turning test on full speed in deep water. You are now going to make a test in shallow water. Do you think the turning diameter will be the same?

a) No, the turning diameter will be increased in shallow water

b) No, the turning diameter will be smaller in shallow water

c) Yes, the turning diameter will be the same for all dephts

d) Yes, it will be the same provided the UKC is 25% 50%

395. You are going to leave a crowded anchorage and make a 180 degrees turn. Your ship has a right handed propeller and you can turn either way. How can you make the turn using as little space as possible?

a) Full ahead, rudder hard to starboard

b) Rudder hard to stb., full ahead. Rudder hard to port, full astern. Repeating this manoeuvre until you have made the turn.

c) Rudder hard to port, full astern. After you gain some sternway, rudder hard to starboard and full ahead

d) Full ahead, rudder hard to port

396. What is the most dangerous overtaking situation shown on the sketches?

a) A small vessel overtaking a large vessel with little difference in speed between the two vessels

b) A large vessel overtaking a small vessel with a big difference in speed between the two vessels

c) A large vessel overtaking a small vessel with little difference in speed between the two vessels

d) A small vessel overtaking a large vessel with a big difference in speed between the two vessels

397. How is shallow water effect felt in a vessel?

a) The vessel responds very quickly to the rudder

b) The vessel has a tendency to turn to starboard (left turning propeller)

c) The vessel has a tendency to turn to port (right turning propeller)

d) The vessel becomes sluggish in responding to the rudder

398. You are the master onboard at VLCC of 280.000tdw, and have received a telex from the Cargo Terminal asking if your SPM moorings are according to the OCIMF standard.What fittings must you have to comply?

a) Two tongue type/hinged bowstoppers with one centre closed fairlead. Capacity 200 tons.

b) One Smith type bracket with centre bow fairlead. Capacity 150 tons

c) Two tongue type/hinged bowstoppers with separate closed fairleads. Capacity 200 tons

d) One tongue type/hinged bowstopper withcentre bow closed fairlead. Capacity 200 tons

399. Experience has shown that the most successful method of double banking (when no tugs used) is:

a) With the larger vessel at anchor, fig.2

b) With the smaller vessel at anchor, fig.3

c) With the larger vessel stopped and drifting in the water, fig.4

d) With both vessels underway, fig.1

400. Whilst unmooring after a ship to ship transfer operation, experience shows that, for the manoeuvring vessel, casting off the forward moorings first and letting the bow swing out before casting off the final after moorings, and then steaming away is a satisfactory procedure. It is recommended however that the angle of disengagement when steaming away should initially be kept at:

a) 5grd.

b) 2grd.

c) 20grd.

d) 60grd.

401. During a mooring operation whilst underway it is recommended that, with one ship maintaining a constant course and speed, the other manoeuvres so that:

a) The manoeuvring vessel presents her port side to the constant direction vessel

b) The manoeuvring vessel presents her stbd side to the constant direction vessel

c) It dosent matter which side is presented

d) The side presented depends on wind direction

402. The rudder is hard over, full ahead in deep water. How much lift force remains when the engine is stopped?

a) About 20%

b) About 50%

c) About 80%

d) About 5%

403.Are there any restrictions for transit of the Suez canal?

a) The Suez Canal is a sea-level canal. There are beam and draft restrictions for very large vessels

b) There are restrictions because of canal locks

c) There are no restrictions. Transit at masters discretion

d) There are no restrictions. Transit at masters discretion, but pilot is compulsory

404. What is the status on Suez canal pilots?

a) Pilotage is compulsory and the pilot is only the master`s advisor

b) Pilotage is not compulsory since this is a sea level canal

c) Pilotage is compulsory and accept full responsibility for any damage caused

d) Pilot is only compulsory during anchoring operations in Great Bitter Lake

405. When is the master required to be on the bridge during transit of the Suez Canal?



a) The master or this qualified representative must be on the bridge at all times

b) At all times

c) During anchoring or tie-up operations only

d) When the pilot is embarking or disembarking

406. Are mooring boats required for vessels transitting the Suez Canal?

a) Yes, only mooring boats hired from shore are accepted

b) Mooring boats are not required

c) Mooring boats are required only for loaded tankers of more than 100 000dwt

d) Ships can use their own boats if they cannot safely lift hired boats, but boat crews must be hired from shore

407. Searchlights must be provided for night navigation in the Suez Canal. Which of the listed requirements are correct?

a) Only projectors hired from the Canal Mooring and Light Company are permitted

b)If vessels have their own projector, an extra fee will be levied on the vessel

c) All vessels must provide their own projector

d) Vessels with bulbous bow, LPG -and LNG vessels must provide their own projector

408 .Are there any restrictions regarding length, breadth or draft in the Panama Canal?

a) Transits are left to the masters discretion, but the canal authorities will assign turn number and monitor traffic

b) Tankers and military vessels are not accepted for tranzit

c) Restrictions regarding length and breadth exists. Draft restrictions vary with seasonal changes

d) There are no restrictions, but a pilot is required for the whole transit

409. Your vessel is transitting the Panama Canal. Which manning level is applicable?

a) Manning level as per statutory requirements +10% more to handle mooring equipment

b) A reduced crew is acceptable since the Panama Canal authorities are supplying transit crew

c) Sufficiently manned in officers and crew to permit safe handling of vessel

d) Manning level as per (statutory requirements) masters discretion

410. Your vessel is moving in Panama Canal waters. When must the master or his qualified representative be on the bridge?

a) When at anchor or alongside a pier

b) When entering or leaving locks only

c) When going through the Gaillard cut only

d) At all times

411. Your vessel is moving in Panama Canal waters. When must the master be on the bridge?

a) At all times

b) When his qualified representative is present

c)     When entering or leaving a lock, passing through Gaillard cut, berthing&unberthing, anchoring or heaving anchor

d) When entering or leaving a lock only

412. Your vessel is moving in Panama Canal waters. When must a regular engineer be on watch in the engine room?

a) At all times

b) When the chief engineer is attending the engine room

c) Not necessary to be in the engine room if the unmanned engine room status is practised and alarms have been checked

d) When requested by the pilot

413. Your vessel is moving in Panama Canal waters. When must the chief engineer remain on duty in the engine room?

a) Only when requested by the pilot

b) At all times

c) When approaching or passing locks and Gaillard cut

d) Only if the regular engineer is off duty

414. Your vessel is moving in Panama Canal waters. When must a crew man capable of and ready to operate the anchors be on the forecastle?

a) When passing through Gaillard cut

b) When anchoring in Gatun Lake only

c) When a Panama Canal pilot is onboard

d) When passing through the Gatun Lake

415. What is the status and function of a Panama Canal pilot?

a) He will take over all the responsibilities of the master on embarkation

b) He will be responsible for canal crew mooring gangs and use of locomotives during lock transits

c) He shall have control of the navigation and movement of the vessel

d) He is an advisor to the vessel`s master

416. Who is authorized to prescribe use of locomotives and canal deck hands during transit of the Panama Canal?

a) The Canal authorities

b) The pilot

c) The master

d) The Cristobal or Balboa harbour masters respectively

417. At what latest time shall doors, sidescuttles, gangway doors, cargo and coaling ports and other openings which are to be kept closed watertight at sea be closed at the start of the voyage?

a) Before leaving the pilot station

b) Before leaving the berth

c) Before leaving the port

d) Before entering open waters

418. What does this crane signal indicate?

a) Lower the boom, raise the load

b) All ok!

c) Raise the boom, lower the load

d) Raise the load

419. A combined vessel (wet/dry) is equipped with 2 Gantry Cranes and certified to carry HC petroleum products. Crane No.1 is dedicated for hose handling and crane No.2 has all functions interlocked when in 'Wet cargo Mode'. The vessel is at anchor having a cargo of naphtha onboard, Chief Eng. is requesting to have one of the cranes prepared in order to take onboard spares. What will be the best crane to use?

a) Crane No.2 if spares are going to the engine room

b) None of the gantry cranes

c) Crane No.1

d) Any of the cranes depending on where spares are going

420. The vessel`s cranes are marked: 'SWL 29,5 tons x 22 M/R (including lifting beam weight 1,5 tons)'. You are going to lift onboard a 28 tons load being placed on the berth. What will be the maximum distance from C/L of crane to the load you are going to lift in order to have a 'safe' operation?

a) m

b) m

c) 29,5m

d) m

421. During mooring operations; which is the safe position to be in?

a) Behind the fairlead, but inside the zone

b) Behind the point of restraint, but inside the zone

c) Between the 'point of break' and the 'fairlead'

d) Outside the coloured zone

422. Which one of the following types of rope is the most dangerous to work with?

a) Manila

b) Polypropylene

c) Nailon

d) Steel wire

423. Your ship is equipped with 2 different types of grabs,small and large, with cubic capacities of 5m3 and 10m3 respectively. Maximum crane load for grab service is 16 tons including grab weight. You are going to discharge a dry commodity having a stowage factor of 1,4 T/m3. What will be the suitable grab for this operation?

a) Small

b) Any of them

c) Large

d) None of the mentioned alternatives

424. Your crane is designed for Grab Service with a hoisting load of 16 tons including grab weight. Grab weight: 8 tons, Grab cubic: 10m3. You are going to discharge a cargo of dry minerals having a stowage factor of 0,7-0,8 t/m3. What will be the maximum weight of the cargo you are allowed to have in each grab?

a) tons

b) 16 tons

c) tons

d) 15 tons

425. When you join a new ship, haw are you informed about safety rules, alarmm instructions and your own duties in case of an emergency?

a) By muster lists exhibited in conspicuous places

b) By oral instructions by the Captain

c) By folder distributed to each crewmember

d) By alarm instructions in all crew cabins

426. In a distress situation, how manytimes or for how long should the emergency alarm signal be sounded?

a) Until all crew members and passengers have reported to their respective muster stations

b) times

c) 3 minutes

d) Until the signal 'risk is over' or the order 'abandon ship' is given

427. Emergency instructions in appropriate languages shall be posted in passenger cabins. Which of the given instructions do not have to be include according to present regulations? (SOLAS III/8)

a) Essential actions they must take in case of an emergency

b) The method of donning lifejackets

c) The method of donning thermal protective aids

d) Their muster station

428. Which one of the listed tasks do not necessarily have to be included in onboard training and instruction of crew members? (SOLAS III/18.4

a) Onboard training and instruction shall be given in addition to regular abandon ship drills

b) Instructions may cover different parts of the lifesaving system, but all lifesaving appliances shall be covered within two months after joining the ship

c) Training in use of lifesaving appliances shall be given as soon as possible, but not later than two weeks after joining the ship

d) Onboard training shall be recorded in the ship`s log book

429.What is the correct definition of: let go?

a) Cast off the rope

b) Let the seafarers go ashore

c) Leave the ship

d) Tight the slack in a rope

430. You have released the tug. To whom do you report when tugs are cleared?

Maximizeaza

 


a) To the Master

b) To the tug

c) No need for reporting as the order was given from the bridge

d) To the Engine Department

431. The vessel has lifted the anchor. The anchor to be stowed in position. How?

  Maximizeaza

 


a) The anchor to be all way in the hawsepipe and secured by brake on winch and wire/chain stopper

b) The anchor to be as far inside hawsepipe as possible and secured by cable stopper

c) The anchor to be all way in the hawsepipe and secured by the brake

d) The anchor to be all way in the hawsepipe and secured by wire lashings only

432. The vessel has anchored. You are to secure the anchor. How do you do it?

a) By use of cable stopper backed up by brake with chain slightly slack between stopper and winch

b) By use of the brake on the winch

c) By use of the brake on the winch with the motor in gear

d) By use of securing wires and brake

433. You are towing a vessel. The total length of the tow is 190 meters. What daylight signals are to be used?

a) No need of any signal

b) Two black balls

c) Diamond shape

d) One black ball

434. A vessel towing with a total length of 1350 meters, expecting strong wind from starboard side. The towing wire is connected 20 meters from towing vessels stern rail. What is to be done?

a) Secure the wire all way aft, to prevent wire moving out of center

b) No need to do anything

c) Stop the towing

d) Reduce the towing speed only

435. You are to release the towing wire with forerunner. You have 3 men with you to do the work. How do you do it in a safe way?

a) Use the winch. Forerunner and wire stopper to pick up the slack and stop the wire. One man operating each. Make the forerunner fast on the bitt, releasing the eye of wire and the stopper, lower the wire easy by forerunner.

b) With manpower. Two men picking up slack and one man lifts off the eye and let go simultaneously

c) Use the winch and forerunner to pick up slack. One man to release the eye, lowering the wire down by use of winch

d) After heaving on the wire by a forerunner, cut the forerunner and so let the wire free

436. You are berthed with a steady offshore beam wind of 30 knots. This wind suddenly increases to 60 knots. When this happens , the force driving the vessel off berth will be:

a) Quadrupled

b) Tripled

c) Doubled

d) Quintipled

437. Your vessel is berthed at a seaberth with an underkeel clearance of 5 times the draft and a cross or beam current of 1 knot is acting on you with force of, let us say, 50 tons. You move to another shallower berth with your draft exactly the same as before and with exactly the same beam current of 1 knot acting on you. However your underkeel clearance here is only 0.5 times the draft. If the current was exerting a force of 50 tons on you before, how much force will it exert now?

a) 150 tons

b) Remain at 50 tons

c) 25 tons

d) 75 tons

438. Two lines sent out and pretensioned equally have the same length, same breaking strength and same directional load. However, one is made of wire (which has a full load elastic elongation of about 1,5 % of its length) and the other made of nylon (which has a full load elongation of about30 % of its length). If a sudden gust of wind increase the load on the lines, this increased load will be shared as follows:

a) Wire takes 45 % of the extra load. Rope takes 55 % of the extra load

b) Wire takes 55 % of the extra load. Rope takes 45 % of the extra load

c) By the wire and rope equally

d) Wire takes 95 % of the extra load. Rope takes 5 % of the extra load

439. Two synthetic fibre lines of the same size and material are run out and pretensioned at the berth. However one line (line A) is secured to a shore bollard twice as far as the other line (line B). If a sudden increase in wind now causes an extra load to come on the lines, the extra load will be shared by the lines as follows:

a) A will take 1/3 of the extra load. B will take 2/3 of the extra load

b) A will take 1/2 of the extra load. B will take 1/2 of the extra load

c) A will take 1/4 of the extra load. B will take the 3/4 of the extra load

d) A will take 3/4 of the extra load. B will take 1/4 of the extra load

440. When synthetic ropetails are used at the ends of wire ropes, due expected faster deterioration of the synthetic ropetails, it its recommended that when ordering ropetails, their initial breaking strength specified should be:

a) 15 % more than the wire's

b) 65 % more than the wire's

c) 25 % more than the wire's

d) 15 % more than the wire's

441. Once a ship (equipped with self stowing autotension winches) is moored alongside a loading or discharging berth, it is recommended that:

a) All winches be left with the manual brake on and gear out

b) The 'spring' winches be left in the auto tension mode and all other winches with the manual brake on

c) All mooring winches be left in 'auto tension' mode

d) The 'breastline' and 'headline' winches be left in the auto tension mode and spring winches with manual brake on

442. If you are called upon to reeve a new wire onto a selfstowing winch drum you would, after looking at brake arrangement, reeve it to pay out as follows:

a) Direction A

b) Doesn't matter which direction

c) Depends on the lay of the wire strands

d) Direction B

443. It is important that the brake holding capacity of a self stowing winch drum should not exceed the breaking strength of the wire or rope wound onto it. A certain percentage of extra strength is therefore recommended for the wire or rope over the brake holding capacity of the winch. So, for a winch of brake holding capacity of 60 Tons you would order a wire of breaking strength:

a) 80 Tons

b) 75 Tons

c) 61 Tons

d) 100 Tons

444. If your vessel is fitted with wires on self-stowing 'split drum' winches, the advantage of having these split drum winches is:

a) All the listed alternatives

b) No crushing of the wire

c) Less chances of the wire being jammed in the reel

d) Less chances of the wire being jammed in the reel

445. In an extreme case, in addition to having your winch brakes as tight as can be, you can increase the brake holding capacity of the winch drum by putting it in gear and setting the power to the 'heave' position. However this may cause:

a) All the listed alternatives

b) Strain on the fairleads and rollers in use in excess of their Safe Working Load

c) Damage to the winch by distorting the shaft

d) The increased braking power of the winch to exceed the breaking strength of the wire and rope paid out from it which might cause the wire or rope to part

446. If you are ordering chain for use as 'Chain Stoppers' on mooring wires, the length of chain usually recommended for use in each stopper is:

a) 1.5 to 2.5 mtrs

b) 4.5 to 5.5 mtrs

c) 3.5 to 4.5 mtrs

d) 2.5 to 3.5 mtrs

447. If you are required to splice an eye on a mooring wire (using the recommended 5 full tucks and 2 half tucks) the effective breaking strength of the wire will now be affected by the splice, and you would expect:

a) A reduction in strength of 10 % to 15 %

b) A reduction in strength of 30 % to 40 %

c) A reduction in strength of 1% to 5%.

d) No reduction in strength

448. When fastening synthetic fibre ropes such as polypropylene on bitts, for safety and better rope control it is recommended to:

a) Make it fast with round turns on the leading bitt alone, fig. 1

b) Make it fast on the second bitt alone, fig. 2.

c) Make it fast in a figure of eight fashion, fig. 3

d) Make two round turns fast on the leading bitt and then figure of eight on both bitts, fig. 4

449. Your ship is operating with a right handed propeller and no thrusters. What can you do to control your ship in the situation shown?

a) Let go port anchor 1 - 1,5 shackles

b) Give hard starboard rudder

c) Let go starboard anchor 1 - 1,5 shackles

d) Increase the speed

450. You are meeting with another ship in confined waters. What can happen as the ships approach each other?

a) The bows of the ships will be pushed away from each other

b) The bows of the ships will be sucked together

c) This does not apply to your vessel

d) There will be none of the mentioned effects

451. You are about to pass another ship in a close situation. What can happen in this situation?

a) The two ships will be pushed towards the banks

b) The bow of your ship will be sucked towards the stern of the other ship

c) Your ship will not be affected in this situation

d) Due to suction, the two ships will be sucked together

452. You are on ship A. What would you do before meeting ship B?

a) Increase speed to full ahead, 13 knots

b) Put the engine to full astern

c) Increase the speed to 8 knots

d) Stop the engine before meeting, and apply engine during meeting

453. You are performing an overtaking man oeuvre in confined waters. What should you watch out for?

a) That you keep your ship on full ahead

b) There is nothing special to watch out for

c) The bow may be sucked against, and the stern may be pushed away from the other ship as you pass

d) That the other ship does not increase its speed

454. You are transitting a narrow channel. What can happen in this situation?

a) The bow will be pushed from away from the bank

b) The bow will be sucked towards the bank

c) The stern will be pushed away from the bank

d) None of the mentioned will happen

455. In the shown situation, the bow of your ship is pushed away from the bank. How can you handle this?

a) Give hard port rudder to get the ship back in the middle of the channel

b) Do nothing as the ship will handle itself

c) Put your engine full astern to stop your ship

d) Give starboard rudder in order to balance the force of the bank effect

and rudder effect

456. How will you define squat?

a) Increase in draft to the point on your ship which is closest to the bottom

b) The speed of your ship will increase

c) Decrease in draft of your ship

d) Squat is not relevant on your ship

457. How can you minimize the squat effect?

a) Maintain your course and speed

b) Do a zig-zag manoeuvre to reduce speed

c) Decrease the speed as much as practicable

d) Increase speed if the ship is not already on full ahead

458. What is the reason for the effect we call squat?

a) Increased velocity and decreased waterpressure around the ship's hull

b) Decreased velocity and increased water pressure around the ship's hull

c) Increased effect of gravity due to closeness of the sea bed

d) The bow and stern wave make the ship sink lower in the water

459. You are sailing in shallow water, with 15% Under Keel Clearance. How will the stopping distance be, compared to deep water?

a) The same as in all depths

b) About 1 ship length longer

c) Longer

d) Shorter

460. You are sailing in shallow water, with 15% Under Keel Clearance. Turning the ship around, what space do you need compared to deep water?

a) Need less space than normal

b) The turning diameter of your ship is the same for all water depths

c) To port less, to starboard more space

d) Need more space than normal

461. You are sailing in shallow water, with 15% Under Keel Clearance. With full RPM, what will your speed be compared to deep water?

a) Stay the same

b) The RPM will drop with 15% of full

c) Slower

d) Faster

462. You are sailing in shallow water, with 15% Under Keel Clearance. Coming full astern from full ahead, how will your course change be compared to deep water?

a) The heading will most likely change by a large amount

b) The heading will not change at all

c) The heading will change only slightly

d) Large change at first, then changing slightly

463. How will the ship behave if you have a 'black out' in the situation sketched below?

a) She will turn to port and the speed will drop gradually

b) She will continue on course and the speed will slowly drop

c) She will turn to starboard and the speed will slowly drop

d) The wind will not affect your ship whatsoever

464. Your ship is going astern right handed propeller as sketched below. How is the ship most likely to react?

a) The bow will go to port

b) The ship will go straight astern

c) The stern will 'back' into the wind

d) The stern will fall off to starboard

465. You are in confined waters. Is there any danger in the situation sketched below if you should loose engine power?

a) Your ship will loose headway, but there should be no immediate danger

b) She will drift to port, but rather slowly as you are loaded

c) She will sheer slowly to port

d) Your ship will sheer to starboard rather quickly with the possible consequence of grounding

466. Your ship is drifting in open sea with temporary engine malfunction. You are equipped with excellent navigation equipment. What should you do in this situation?

a) Ask the Chief Engineer when the engine will be ready

b) Go to bed and wait for the engine to be ready

c) Use the opportunity to plot direction and rate of drift for later use

d) Call the company immediately

467. You are drifting in open sea with a loaded VLCC, and you observe that the drift is SSE. Will the drift direction be the same for ballast condition?

a) Yes, it will be the same

b) Loaded or ballast condition have no effect on the drift.

c) In ballast condition the drift will be more to the east

d) No, drifting in ballast condition may be quite different.

468. You are drifting with a loaded VLCC in open sea. You have observed the direction and rate of drift. Can you do anything to change the direction and rate of drift?

a) We will just have to wait and see

b) We can apply the rudder although we have no engine power

c) We can trim the ship by stern as much as possible. This will most likely change the direction and rate of drift.

d) No, there is nothing I can do about that

469. Why is it important to determine how your ship is drifting in various conditions?

a) To determine if there is any danger of grounding or colliding with objects during drifting

b) To save fuel for the owner by 'sailing' the ship whenever possible

c) To know how far you can drift in a given period of time

d) To determine how many hours you have at your disposal before you need to call for assistance

470. You are steaming off a coast when they call from the bridge and tell you that the engine has stopped. They need a couple of hours to fix it, what will you do?

a) Call the Chief Engineer and tell him to hurry up

b) Call your company and ask for instructions

c) As soon as possible determine how the ship is drifting to establish if there is any danger

d) Relax as there is plenty of time before there is any danger

471. A ship is not turning around the center of gravity, but another point. What is the point called?

a) Point of no return

b) Point of radius

c) Pivot point

d) Point of turning

472. A ship is turning around a point called the 'pivot point'. What is the position of this invisible point when the ship is 'dead' in the water?

a) About same position as the center of gravity

b) Near the stern of the ship

c) Outside of the center line

d) Near the bow

473. Where do you think the 'pivot point' is located when your ship is going full speed ahead? No wind, current.

a) Near the stern

b) At about 1/6 of the ship's length from the stern

c) At about 1/6 of the ship's length from the bow

d) Amidships

474. Your ship is going full astern and making sternway. Where will the 'pivot point' be located? No wind, current.

a) At 1/6 of the ship's length from the stern

b) At the center of gravity

c) Somewhere aft of the center of gravity, but it is impossible to pin point the exact location

d) At 1/6 of the ship's length off the bow

475. Your ship is going full ahead as you start to slow down. Where is the position of the 'pivot point' now? No wind, current.

a) It will move aft as the ship slows down

b) Same position as when the ship is on full ahead

c) The 'pivot point' will move to the stern

d) It will move to the side of the center line

476. How do we define the location of the 'pivot point'?

a) The point on the ship where you have maximum sideways motion in a turn

b) The point on the ship where the forward motion is at maximum

c) The point on the ship where the sideways motion forward is at maximum

d) The point where the sideways motion of the ship`s centreline is zero.

477. The ship is in a sharp turn and the log shows sideways motion to port both forward and aft. Where is the 'pivot point' located?

a) At 1/6 of the ship's length aft of the bow, but in the center line

b) At the center of gravity

c) Outside the ship itself

d) Aft of amidships

478. Your diagram shows that you will need 2000m to stop your ship from full ahead in deep water. What will the stopping distance be in shallow water?

a) Longer

b) Shorter

c) No change

d) About 1500m

479. Your ship's initial speed is half ahead and your engine is put full astern. How will the stopping distance be compared to full speed?

a) It will be much longer

b) It will differ only slightly

c) It will be much shorter

d) It will be the same as full speed

480. Your ship is equipped with a right handed propeller. As you go full astern from full ahead, the ship is sheering to starboard. Is there anything you can do to reduce the change in heading?

a) Put the rudder hard to starboard to reduce the water flow to the right side of the propeller

b) No, there is nothing I can do

c) Put the rudder hard to port to reduce the water flow to the left side of the propeller

d) I can swing the rudder from side to side

481. What will the stopping distance of your ship be when proceeding with 8 knots and reversing to full astern?

a) 1500m

b) 5 ship lengths

c) The stopping distance is the same for all initial speeds

d) The sea trial tests may tell me, or else I can do a test myself to find aut

482. You want to stop your ship as quickly as possible without too much change in the heading. What can you do to achieve this?

a) Make a complete turning circle

b) Do a zig zag manoeuvre

c) Use the rudder hard over both sides while reducing engine power, so called 'high frequency rudder cycling'.

d) Put the engine full astern

483. Do you think a ship's trim has any influence on steering abilities?

a) No, the ship will have the same steering ability unaffected by trim.

b) Yes, a ship usually steer better if trimmed by the bow.

c) No, it is usually best to have no trim at all.

d) Yes, the ship usually steer better if trimmed by the stern.

484.'Overshoot' is an expression we use when talking about a ship's steering ability. What is the best way to determine how the 'overshoot' is on your ship?

a) Do a 20/20 degrees zig zag manoeuvre.

b) Do a 360 degrees turning circle.

c) Do a 540 degrees turning circle.

d) Do a standing turn.

485. When a conventional rudder is put hard over it creates a lift force and a drag force. When the ship has started to turn, how much lift force do you think remains if the rudder angle is decreased to 20 degrees from hard over position (35 degrees)?

a) About 10 %.

b) About 30 %.

c) About 50 %.

d) About 80 %.

486. Do you think there is any reduction in the rudder lift force if the propeller is stopped?

a) Yes, we will loose about 10% of the lift force.

b) No, we will maintain about 90% of the lift force

c) No, the lift force is not effected by the propeller.

d) Yes, the lift force will be dramatically reduced.

487. What is the correct way in approaching the SPM, taking the prevailing wind, current and waves into consideration?

a) As in example 3

b) As in example 4

c) As in example 2

d) As in example 1

488. Your ship is making sternway about 1,5 knots. Your rudder is hard to starboard. Will this have any effect on the ship`s behaviour?

a) No, the rudder will have no effect when the ship is making sternway, it should be in midship position when going astern

b) Yes, it will give the stern a lift force to port

c) No, the ship will go straight astern

d) Yes, it will give the stern a lift force to starboard

489. The maximum rudder angle on your ship is 35 degrees. Do you think this is the angle that the rudder is most effective?

a) No, the most effective rudder angle is about 25 to 30 degrees. This is because the rudder is 'stalling' at 35 degrees angle

b) No, the rudder is most effective at angles between 10 and 20 degrees

c) Yes, the rudder is most effective at max angle

d) No, the rudder is most effective at small rudder angles

490. The rudder is hard over, full ahead in shallow water.How much lift force remains when the engine is stopped?

a) About 80%

b) About 5%

c) About 10%

d) About 50%

491. When connecting a tugboat, what speed do you think is best for your vessel to maintain during this operation?

a) The speed should be less than 5 knots, normally 3 knots

b) It is best to stop the vessel completely before connecting

c) A tug may be connected at any convenient speed

d) The speed should be more than 7 knots

492. Your ship has right handed propeller and is on half ahead when you put her full astern to stop her. Do you think the rudder will have any effect while the ship is making headway?

a) No, the rudder should always be amidship when the propeller is going astern

b) No the rudder must be put midships, otherwise it could be destroyed

c) Yes, by putting the rudder hard to port the ship will go to port, even if the propeller is going astern

d) Yes, by putting the rudder hard stb.it will shield waterflow to the stb.side of the propeller and vice versa to port. This will effect turning of the ship.

493. Which of the alternative methods of using a tug when escorting your ship through narrow waters do you think is the most effective in case you loose steering power?

a) Running free alongside, ready to be made fast (figure 2)

b) Made fast forward on either shoulder, ready to push (figure 3)

c) Made fast in a line at the bow (figure 1)

d) The tug`s bow against my stern, made fast with lines. By moving the tug to either side of my stern, this will help to steer the ship (figure 4)

494. A tug is connected in a line at your bow. Will the bollard pull be the same at any speed?

a) No, when the speed exceeds 5 knots we have not much help in a tug

b) No, when the speed is increasing, the bollard is also increasing

c) Yes, the bollard is the same at any speed

d) We will have the best use of the tug when the ship makes sternway

495. Consider the situation sketched below. How will you distribute the power of the tugs when you want to move the ship sideways without any yaw?

a) Equal power on both tugs

b) Full power on the forward tug, the stern tug should hold back

c) Full power on the forward tug, reduce on the aft tug while checking the gyro

d) Full power on the aft tug, stop on the forward tug

496. Consider the situation sketched below. How will you distribute the power of the tugs when you want to move the ship sideways without any yaw?

a) Full power on the aft tug, reduce on the forward while checking the gyro

b) Full power on the aft tug, stop on the forward tug

c) Equal power on both tugs

d) Full power on the forward tug, the stern tug should hold bac

497. Consider the situation sketched below. How will you distribute the power of the tugs when you want to move the ship sideways without any yaw?

a) Equal power on both tugs while checking the gyro

b) Full power on the aft tug, stop on the forward tug

c) Full power on the aft tug, reduce on the forward tug

d) Full power on the forward tug, the stern tug should hold back

498. Consider the situation sketched below.What can happen if the tugmaster is not careful?

a) The tug may fall back and have difficulties in catching up with you again

b) The mast on the tug may be broken

c) The tug may be sucked into your stern with danger of striking the propeller

d) Full power on the forward tug, the stern tug should hold back

499. What is meant when a vessel is said to have sinkage?

a) Sinkage is the extra draft a vessel obtains when she is comparatively heavily loaded both ends

b) Sinkage is the extra draft a vessel obtains when she is comparatively heavily loaded amidship

c) Sinkage is the change in draft a vessel obtains when moving through the water

d) Sinkage is the deepest draft a vessel obtains aft when moving through the water

500. You are in a 360 degrees turn with engine full ahead. If you reduce speed during the turn, do you think there will be a change in turning diameter?

a) No, the turning diameter will not change if I reduce speed

b) No, the turning diameter will only change if I reduce rudder angle

c) Yes, the turning diameter will increase if I reduce speed

d) Yes, the turning diameter will be smaller if I reduce speed

501. You have made a turning circle at full speed in deep water. You are now going to make one with initial speed, slow ahead. Do you think the diameter will differ from that of initial full ahead?

a) Yes, it will be much greater with slow ahead

b) Yes, it will be a large difference in the turning diameter between full and slow ahead

c) The diameter will be the same whatever initial speed we have when starting the turn

d) Yes, it will be much smaller with slow ahead

502. You have made a turning test on full speed in deep water. You are now going to make a test in shallow water. Do you think the turning diameter will be the same?

a) No, the turning diameter will be increased in shallow water

b) No, the turning diameter will be smaller in shallow water

c) Yes, the turning diameter will be the same for all dephts

d) Yes, it will be the same provided the UKC is 25% 50%

503. You are going to leave a crowded anchorage and make a 180 degrees turn. Your ship has a right handed propeller and you can turn either way. How can you make the turn using as little space as possible?

a) Full ahead, rudder hard to starboard

b) Rudder hard to stb., full ahead. Rudder hard to port, full astern. Repeating this manoeuvre until you have made the turn.

c) Rudder hard to port, full astern. After you gain some sternway, rudder hard to starboard and full ahead

d) Full ahead, rudder hard to port

504. Consider the situation sketched below. What can happen if the tugmaster is not careful?

a) The tug may be pushed away from the ship and thus unable to assist your vessel

b) The stern of the tug may be sucked into your bow

c) The tugmaster may loose control and ram your bow with possible damage to your ship

d) The tug may be turned across your bow with the danger of being turned over

505. For which type of vessel is sinkage most pronounced?

a) Supply and anchorhandling vessels

b) Cargoliner

c) High block coefficient vessel

d) Vessel with a very wide beam compared to length

506. For which type of vessel is squatting most pronounced?

a) Cargoliner

b) Vessel with a very wide beam compared to length

c) Supply and anchorhandling vessel.Fireboat etc.

d) Vessel with a high block coefficient

507. What is the most dangerous overtaking situation shown on the sketches?

a) A small vessel overtaking a large vessel with little difference in speed between the two vessels

b) A large vessel overtaking a small vessel with a big difference in speed between the two vessels

c) A large vessel overtaking a small vessel with little difference in speed between the two vessels

d) A small vessel overtaking a large vessel with a big difference in speed between the two vessels

508. How is shallow water effect felt in a vessel?

a) The vessel responds very quickly to the rudder

b) The vessel has a tendency to turn to starboard (left turning propeller)

c) The vessel has a tendency to turn to port (right turning propeller)

d) The vessel becomes sluggish in responding to the rudder

509. Vessel will leave anchorage. You will heave up the anchor. How and to whom will you report the status of the anchor?

a) To the officer on duty on the bridge

b) To the Chief Officer

c) To the master according to his instructions

d) No need report

510. M When Sen. Deck Off. Of both vessels involved have decided which will be the last lines to be let go whilst unmooring, these lines should be made fast as follows on the ship accepting the lines.

a) By turning up the rope on the bitts, fig.1

b) By putting the eye on the bitts, fig.2

c) By keeping the rope on the warping drum of adeck winch, fig.3

d) By shackling the eye to a strongpoint, fig.4

511. During a mooring operation whilst underway it is recommended that, with one ship maintaining a constant course and speed, the other manoeuvres so that:

a) The manoeuvring vessel presents her port side to the constant direction vessel

b) The manoeuvring vessel presents her stbd side to the constant direction vessel

c) It dosent matter which side is presented

d) The side presented depends on wind direction

512. The rudder is hard over, full ahead in deep water. How much lift force remains when the engine is stopped?

a) About 20%

b) About 50%

c) About 80%

d) About 5%

Are there any restrictions for transit of the Suez canal?

a) The Suez Canal is a sea-level canal. There are beam and draft restrictions for very large vessels

b) There are restrictions because of canal locks

c) There are no restrictions. Transit at masters discretion

d) There are no restrictions. Transit at masters discretion, but pilot is compulsory

514. What is the status on Suez canal pilots?

a) Pilotage is compulsory and the pilot is only the master`s advisor

b) Pilotage is not compulsory since this is a sea level canal

c) Pilotage is compulsory and accept full responsibility for any damage caused

d) Pilot is only compulsory during anchoring operations in Great Bitter Lake

515. When is the master required to be on the bridge during transit of the Suez Canal?

a) The master or this qualified representative must be on the bridge at all times

b) At all times

c) During anchoring or tie-up operations only

d) When the pilot is embarking or disembarking

516. Are mooring boats required for vessels transitting the Suez Canal?

a) Yes, only mooring boats hired from shore are accepted

b) Mooring boats are not required

c) Mooring boats are required only for loaded tankers of more than 100 000dwt

d) Ships can use their own boats if they cannot safely lift hired boats, but boat crews must be hired from shore

517. Searchlights must be provided for night navigation in the Suez Canal. Which of the listed requirements are correct?

a) Only projectors hired from the Canal Mooring and Light Company are permitted

b) If vessels have their own projector, an extra fee will be levied on the vessel

c) All vessels must provide their own projector

d) Vessels with bulbous bow, LPG -and LNG vessels must provide their own projector

518. Rigging of the Pilot Ladder and embarkation/disembarkation of a pilot shall be supervised by:

a) An experienced AB

b) The Bosum

c) The Sen. Off .Deck only

d) A responsible Officer

519. Are there any restrictions regarding length, breadth or draft in the Panama Canal?

a) Transits are left to the masters discretion, but the canal authorities will assign turn number and monitor traffic

b) Tankers and military vessels are not accepted for transit

c) Restrictions regarding length and breadth exists. Draft restrictions vary with seasonal changes

d) There are no restrictions, but a pilot is required for the whole transit

520. Your vessel is transitting the Panama Canal. Which manning level is applicable?

a) Manning level as per statutory requirements +10% more to handle mooring equipment

b) A reduced crew is acceptable since the Panama Canal authorities are supplying transit crew

c) Sufficiently manned in officers and crew to permit safe handling of vessel

d) Manning level as per (statutory requirements) masters discretion

521. Your vessel is moving in Panama Canal waters. When must the master or his qualified representative be on the bridge?

a) When at anchor or alongside a pier

b) When entering or leaving locks only

c) When going through the Gaillard cut only

d) At all times

522. Your vessel is moving in Panama Canal waters. When must the master be on the bridge?

a) At all times

b) When his qualified representative is present

c) When entering or leaving a lock, passing through Gaillard cut, berthing&unberthing, anchoring or heaving anchor

d) When entering or leaving a lock only

523. Your vessel is moving in Panama Canal waters. When must a regular engineer be on watch in the engine room?

a) At all times

b) When the chief engineer is attending the engine room

c) Not necessary to be in the engine room if the unmanned engine room status is practised and alarms have been checked

d) When requested by the pilot

524. Your vessel is moving in Panama Canal waters. When must the chief engineer remain on duty in the engine room?

a) Only when requested by the pilot

b) At all times

c) When approaching or passing locks and Gaillard cut

d) Only if the regular engineer is off duty

525. Who is authorized to prescribe use of locomotives and canal deck hands during transit of the Panama Canal?

a) The Canal authorities

b) The pilot

c) The master

d) The Cristobal or Balboa harbour masters respectively

526. At what latest time shall doors, sidescuttles, gangway doors, cargo and coaling ports and other openings which are to be kept closed watertight at sea be closed at the start of the voyage?

a) Before leaving the pilot station

b) Before leaving the berth

c) Before leaving the port

d) Before entering open waters

527. What does this crane signal indicate?

a) Lower the boom, raise the load

b) All ok!

c) Raise the boom, lower the load

d) Raise the load

528. A combined vessel (wet/dry) is equipped with 2 Gantry Cranes and certified to carry HC petroleum products. Crane No.1 is dedicated for hose handling and crane No.2 has all functions interlocked when in 'Wet cargo Mode'. The vessel is at anchor having a cargo of naphtha onboard, Chief Eng. is requesting to have one of the cranes prepared in order to take onboard spares. What will be the best crane to use?

a) Crane No.2 if spares are going to the engine room

b) None of the gantry cranes

c) Crane No.1

d) Any of the cranes depending on where spares are going

529. The vessel`s cranes are marked: 'SWL 29,5 tons x 22 M/R (including lifting beam weight 1,5 tons)'. You are going to lift onboard a 28 tons load being placed on the berth. What will be the maximum distance from C/L of crane to the load you are going to lift in order to have a 'safe' operation?

a) m

b) m

c) 29,5m

d) m

530. During mooring operations; which is the safe position to be in?

a) Behind the fairlead, but inside the zone

b) Behind the point of restraint, but inside the zone

c) Between the 'point of break' and the 'fairlead'

d) Outside the coloured zone

531. Which one of the following types of rope is the most dangerous to work with?

a) Manila

b) Polypropylene

c) Nylon

d) Steel wire

532. What is the strain on each of the two slings?

a) 1) 5tons 2) 5tons

b) 1) 5tons 2) 5tons

c) 1)10tons 2) 5tons

d) 1) 2tons 2) 1ton

533. Your ship is equipped with 2 different types of grabs,small and large, with cubic capacities of5m3 and 10m3 respectively. Maximum crane load for grab service is 16 tons including grab weight. You are going to discharge a dry commodity having a stowage factor of 1,4 T/m3. What will be the suitable grab for this operation?

a) Small

b) Any of them

c) Large

d) None of the mentioned alternatives

534. Your crane is designed for Grab Service with a hoisting load of 16 tons including grab weight. Grab weight: 8 tons, Grab cubic: 10m3. You are going to discharge a cargo of dry minerals having a stowage factor of 0,7-0,8 t/m3. What will be the maximum weight of the cargo you are allowed to have in each grab?

a) tons

b) 16 tons

c) tons

d) 15 tons

535. In a distress situation and immediately after the distress signal has been sounded, what is the next action to be taken by the Chief Officer on duty?

a) Use the intercom to inform crew and passengers of the reason for the alarm

b) Call the nearest coastal radio station

c) Send distress signals to call for help

d) Use the VHF -radio telephone to ask ships in the vicinity to stand by

536. In a distress situation, how manytimes or for how long should the emergency alarm signal be sounded?

a) Until all crew members and passengers have reported to their respective muster stations

b) times

c) 3 minutes

d) Until the signal 'risk is over' or the order 'abandon ship' is given

537. Emergency instructions in appropriate languages shall be posted in passenger cabins. Which of the given instructions do not have to be include according to present regulations? (SOLAS III/8)

a) Essential actions they must take in case of an emergency

b) The method of donning lifejackets

c) The method of donning thermal protective aids

d) Their muster station

538. Which one of the listed tasks do not necessarily have to be included in onboard training and instruction of crew members? (SOLAS III/18.4

a) Onboard training and instruction shall be given in addition to regular abandon ship drills

b) Instructions may cover different parts of the lifesaving system, but all lifesaving appliances shall be covered within two months after joining the ship

c) Training in use of lifesaving appliances shall be given as soon as possible, but not later than two weeks after joining the ship

d) Onboard training shall be recorded in the ship`s log book

539. What do you understand by the initials S.W.L when applied to a crane?

a) The special working liability of the crane

b) The length of the steel wire during normal working conditions

c) The load that can be safely lifted during normal working conditions

d) The test load weight

540. The vessel`s cranes are marked: 'SWL 29,5 tons x 22 M/R (including lifting beam weight 1,5 tons)'. You like to lift onboard a load of steel coils being placed on the berth. Distance from C/L of crane to the steel coils is 22 meters. What will be the maximum weight of the coils (in one lifting) in order to have a 'safe' lifting?

a) 29,5 tons

b) 30,0 tons

c) 28,0 tons

d) 31,0 tons

541. What is the correct definition of: let go?

a)         Cast off the rope

b)         Let the seafarers go ashore

c)         Leave the ship

d)         Tight the slack in a rope

RASPUNSUL INTREBARILOR TESTULUI

INTREBARE

RASPUNS

INTREBARE

RASPUNS

INTREBARE

RASPUNS

b

d

b

d

d

a

c

c

b

b

b

b

a

d

a

a

d

b

b

a

b

d

d

c

d

b

c

d

b

a

b

a

a

a

d

c

b

b

c

c

b

d

d

a

d

c

a

d

d

d

a

c

c

a

b

d

c

b

b

c

d

c

b

b

a

b

d

d

b

c

a

c

c

c

c

c

b

a

a

c

b

d

c

d

b

d

d

a

d

c

a

b

b

c

c

a

a

c

d

d

d

d

c

b

a

a

a

d

a

b

d

a

b

d

c

a

c

b

b

a

a

c

a

b

c

d

d

b

a

c

a

d

a

b

d

b

c

b

d

a

a

b

a

a

d

b

b

a

c

a

RASPUNSUL INTREBARILOR TESTULUI

INTREBARE

RASPUNS

INTREBARE

RASPUNS

INTREBARE

RASPUNS

c

a

d

c

a

a

d

a

a

c

a

a

a

a

a

c

c

c

c

a

c

c

a

a

a

a

a

d

d

a

c

a

c

a

c

a

c

a

a

a

c

c

c

d

c

d

d

c

a

a

a

c

d

c

a

d

d

d

a

a

c

a

c

a

d

c

a

a

d

d

d

d

c

a

c

a

d

c

c

d

c

a

a

c

a

c

c

a

c

a

a

d

a

b

a

c

c

d

c

d

c

a

c

c

c

c

c

c

a

a

d

a

a

d

c

a

c

a

a

d

a

a

c

c

d

c

a

a

a

a

a

d

a

c

d

c

a

c

a

d

a

a

c

d

d

c

c

a

d

a

RASPUNSUL INTREBARILOR TESTULUI

INTREBARE

RASPUNS

INTREBARE

RASPUNS

INTREBARE

RASPUNS

c

d

a

302.

a

c

a

d

a

a

a

a

a

305.

d

c

a

c

d

d

a

c

d

c

d

c

a

c

c

a

a

d

c

c

c

c

c

a

a

a

c

c

c

c

d

c

c

c

a

a

c

d

c

a

c

c

319.

c

a

c

a

c

d

321.

c

a

d

a

d

c

c

c

a

a

a

a

a

c

a

a

d

a

a

a

c

a

d

a

c

d

a

a

c

a

a

c

a

d

d

a

a

a

a

334.

d

c

a

a

a

a

a

d

a

a

d

a

a

a

d

a

c

a

c

a

c

a

a

a

d

c

d

d

c

d

c

a

a

a

c

a

d

c

c

a

d

a

c

a

d

a

d

c

c

a

a

RASPUNSUL INTREBARILOR TESTULUI

INTREBARE

RASPUNS

INTREBARE

RASPUNS

INTREBARE

RASPUNS

d

a

d

d

d

d

c

d

c

a

c

c

d

d

d

a

a

c

c

c

a

a

a

c

c

d

a

d

d

c

461.

c

a

c

a

c

c

a

a

d

c

a

d

d

c

c

c

c

a

d

c

a

c

c

a

a

a

a

c

c

a

c

d

c

a

c

a

c

d

c

c

c

c

a

d

a

d

c

c

a

a

a

c

a

a

a

d

a

c

a

d

d




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Navigatie




COORDONAREA ECHIPELOR DE SALVARE
PREGATIRI PENTRU ABANDONAREA NAVEI
ACTIUNI INAINTEA FAZEI DE CAUTARE
ACORDAREA ASISTENTEI UNEI NAVE IN PERICOL
FISELE DE SECURITATE PENTRU CLASELE DE MARFURI PERICULASE
TINEREA LA CAPA
PREVENIREA Sl COMBATEREA INCENDIILOR LA BORDUL NAVEI CARE TRANSPORTA MARFURI PERICULOASE
Calculul de carene inclinate
SART - SEARCH AND RESCUE TRANSPONDER
EXAMEN SCRIS SPECIALIST CLASA - NAVIGATOR - PROBLEMA COMPLEXA DE NAVIGATIE